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Originally Posted by Daanish Many of you will make the argument that this was a problem at the time and that a solution like that is a very modern thinking style, so if you make that argument are you admitting to the fact that Islam (which is a 110% perfect religion, according to Muslims) did not have an answer to solve this problem as well. If it does have a solution why was it not implemented immediately. |
Righty-Ohhhhh!
The thing with slavery was that it was very common in the arab world (before, during and after the Islamic period). What Islam did first and foremost was give them rights (this was a huge thing back then considering slaves were treated really badly) - they were more of servants as opposed to what we usually think of as slaves in terms of their rights, how they were treated and so on and so forth. To completely eradicate slavery would have taken time any attempt to do it immediately would not have yielded the ideal result (i.e NO SLAVERY)- it's pretty much the same deal with alcohol prohibition and it's interesting to note that where an instant prohibition was tried, it didn't work (America ----> moonshine, gangster era etc). In contrast, the Islamic ruling on alcohol went through stages and worked. So in a similar way, the ruling to slavery came about.
One important thing to note was that free men at the time could not be made into slaves and that slaves could become free men (I'm not 100% sure as to what they had to do to achieve this tho).
Now to readress the point about not immediate eradication. The people would not have accepted it (remember, slavery was almost like a cultural/traditional thing at the time - to change that one would have to take baby-steps to convince those carried it out; the first baby step was giving them rights - essentially turning them from slave to servant). The solution had to be progressive because of the situation.
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