As salamu alaykum.

As those verse in Islamic Shariah will know, taking slaves isn't expressely forbidden in the Sunnah or Quran. We all know the benefical reasons behind this (if you dont, then insha'Allah find out lest some day your asked don't know what to say) but I have a question regarding taking slaves specifically.

For example, can I make someone who was born free a slave?

Could someone who was willing to be my slave, become my slave?

What are the rules regarding ownership of slaves etc...?

I'm curious to know as well.

br. Azim,
The concept of slavery in Islam was discussed in great detail in the later portion of this thread:
http://www.islamicboard.com/refutati...ave-girls.html

Concerning your question, outside the context of war, it is forbidden to enslave a free person as mentioned in this hadith:

Narrated Abu Huraira:

The Prophet said, "Allah says, 'I will be against three persons on the Day of Resurrection:

1. One who makes a covenant in My Name, but he proves treacherous.

2. One who sells a free person (as a slave) and eats the price,

3. And one who employs a laborer and gets the full work done by him but does not pay him his wages.' " (Bukhari, Volume 3, Book 34, 430)

I'm not trying to be sarcastic, but does this mean that it's okay for the USA to take Iraqi's as slaves. Is it okay for the Iraqi's to take the Americans as slaves? Is this acceptable since it's mentioned in the hadith mentioned above.

If you read the thread I linked, you will see why slavery was the custom of those times. The decision of what is to be done with the war captives belongs to the state and they decide based on what is in the best interests of the nation. In modern time, after the abolition of slavery, it is not in anyone's best interests to enslave prisoners of war. Please read about the Islamic treatment of prisoners of war here:
http://www.islamicboard.com/depth-is...war-islam.html

Ansar Al-‘Adl, I have been reading the links you provided. I remain confused about a few things.

This was cited; "because if a slave woman becomes pregnant, the child belongs to the master and she becomes free when he dies".

When it say’s the child “belongs” to the slave master, I get the impression that the child “belongs” to the master as a possession just the same as the slave woman “belongs” to the slave master.

Your answer to the cite shows that my impression would be wrong:

“It is saying that not only is the son free, but the mother becomes free as well”.

Can you help me understand this, a little better please? I am sure my confusion is due to my ignorance of the original language.

Another thing that has left me confused is the argument that if all the slaves had been freed there would have been no jobs or work for them.

Would have the work they were doing as slaves still have been needed to be done?
If you have fields that require 15 men to work, don’t those fields still require 15 men to work them?

Free the slaves today and then you have 15 jobs ready for the 15 freed slaves tomorrow don’t you?

How long did the gradual ending of slavery by Islam take?

One of your replies cited this:

Two hundred families of Al-Mustalaq faced slavery as a result of their ill-considered plan to attack the Muslims. It should be emphasized here that such a prospect was not as terrible as one may think today. Slaves in the Muslim state enjoyed all their human rights as fellow human being to their masters. This was true only in the land of Islam. Islam treats every individual as a human being who is susceptible to be a good servant of God. Hence no one is despised or looked down upon simply because he lacks in fortune or bad circumstances.

Why was there a need to end such practices? What harm was that type of slavery doing that it needed to be ended?

Thanks
Nimrod

Hi Nimrod,
I've answered your questions here:
http://www.islamicboard.com/refutati...tml#post299716 (Slave Girls)

Regards