Salam aleikum brothers and sisters I am hoping you can help me.

To my understanding, when in the Quran, Allah subhana wa ta'ala refers to the 'people of the book' this means Christians and Jews, hence why men can marry women from amongst 'the people of the book'.

So why when Allah subhana wa ta'ala says 'The food of the People of the Book is lawful unto you and yours is lawful unto them' Surah 5 verse 5...why does 'halal' meat not include meat available in western Christian countries such as Ireland or UK?

Thread Approved.

well jewish - kosher - food is acceptable.
christians eat a lot of things forbidden both in islam and in judaism.
so the quote must be only referring to jews.
somebody will correct me if i'm wrong, but it seems like common sense.

The seventh day adventists also eat kosher.

it is not just what is eaten - it is also the method of slaughter.
btw - OP - the question you've raised is interesting!

Well, they're vegetarians so in my opinion they don't slaughter at all...

assalamu alaikum

the commentary on this ayah in my qur'an (by Abdullah Yusuf Ali) says:

<<the question is for food generally, such as is ordinarily "good and pure": in the manner of meat it should be killed with some sort of solemnity analogous to that of the Takbir. The rules of Islam in this respect being analogous to those of the People of the Book, there is no objection to mutual recognition, as opposed to meat killed by Pagans with superstitious rites. In this respect the Christian rule is the same: "That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication" (Acts 15:29).>>

My own thoughts are, that while the UK & Ireland may be described as 'Christian' countries, the care and slaughter of animals is not overseen by any organisation which ensures the above mentioned rules are adhered to. As far as I know there is no law against strangled chickens appearing on supermarket shelves, and the routine stunning of animals before slaughter, which often kills them, does not allow the removal of blood to the same extent as cutting the artery without stunning.

I am speculating now, but I think that it is only in these modern days of intensive farming and mass slaughter that the meat of Christians can no longer be accepted as halal? I mean before stunning became widespread. I wonder whether it was generally known among Christian farmers that the New Testament forbad strangulation as a method of slaughter, because I am sure that chickens sometimes used to be strangled in Ireland?

http://www.islamicboard.com/833707-post7.html (Halal Meat Vs. Zabihah Meat?)

http://www.islamicboard.com/health-s...tml#post833693 (Halal Meat Vs. Zabihah Meat?)

(Halal Meat Vs. Zabihah Meat?)

Thank you Jazak Allahu khairen for the information.
Actually NoName55 thank you very much for your post on the other thread

Despite the fact I had read the verse before I never really put it together about the method of strangling/stunning/violent blow. Don't know how I didn't see it.

This thread can now be closed thank you

by the best of my memory I remember that if a Muslim knows that the animal was slaughtered in somebody else's name than God's, then the meat would not be allowed. As it is supposed that a Christian would slaughter an animal in the name of God. In general, we cannot know how the animal was slaughtered, unless we are witnesses. Obviously, the meat that is haraam for us (i.e. pork, etc.) is haram no matter who slaughtered the animal and this includes people of the Book.

If we know that the meat is from people of the Book, then we assume that they slaughtered the animal in the name of God, so we say Bismillah and we eat it. Allah (swt) does not overburden any soul - the knowledge on how the animal was slaughtered is in general not available to us.

It's always better to take "the more safe approach" - if one is in doubt and cannot know for sure what to choose, then it's best to choose what is more strict.