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YusufNoor
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Default Re: Why is the phrase "childern of israel" mentioned in the Quran? - 12-03-2006

Quote:
Originally Posted by SirZubair View Post
A brother who goes by the name of Rafeeq made that statement in another forum.



Salaamu Alaykum

Quote:
Interesting question Sam.I once mentioned to someone what I observed in the Quran.I noticed that when Allah (Subhana wa ta'ala) uses the name Yahood in the Qur'an the tone is always harsh.But in verses where He displays His compassion towards them He uses the name Bani Israel or other names.So to me Allah(swt) is using the term Yahood to refer to a people who choose to call themselves 'Yahoodi' because of their ancestory more than anything else and who pride themselves for being priveledged and superior to everyone else(i.e.gentiles).And Allah knows best.
historically, Bani Israel is ALL of the descendants of Jacob/Israel. Jacob had 12 sons, ONE of them is named Judah, the Jews in the Tanakh are the descendants of Judah. the northern tribes of Israel seceeded from the "Union"(of the 12 tribes), after Solomon's son took the crown. the north made their own king, and to prevent folks from going to Jerusalem for "Holy Days" created their own version of religion. Thus, the majority of the Levites, who had no region of their own and were assigned cities in the lands of the other tribes, migrated to Judah. most maps of "Tanakh/Old Testament" will show you that Simeon had no land of their own and that their portion was interspersed within Judah. Benjamin (Joseph's brother's tribe), shared land around Jerusalem with/and next to Judah.

thus a Yahudi is a Jew, usually a descendant of Judah, but also contains members of the tribes of Simeon, Benjamin & Levi. (albeit with a smattering of the other tribes)

Jacob & Joseph were not Jews, as Judah was Jacob's son and Joseph's brother. the Northern tribes were usually called Israel or Ephraim. Ephraim was one of Joseph's sons, he along with his brother, Manasseh were given equal tribal shares and blessings.

that's why although 12 sons, there are 13 tribes of Israel.

also, by the time of Jesus/Isa(as), the northern tribes had been "deported" to other regions of the middle east. they recieved seperated punishments from "Hashem G-d" in the Tanakh than did the "nation" of Judah. the nation of Judah lasted longer and was "returned" after their exile (though, tbh, they really loved the "dunya" in Babylon and didn't want to leave). Judah existed for over 500 years after "Israel" "vanished", and that is who the latter "Prophets" in the Tanakh are dealing with.

therefor, the "anger" of Hashem G-d or Yaweh, by the time of Jesus/Isa/(as) is usually associated with the Jews (or the nation of Judah).

in other words, the Jews are "children of Israel", but not all "children of Israel" are Jews!


*sighs* if i had a brain, this might make more sense, but that's the what and the why...

kinda :okay:

   
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Default Re: Why is the phrase "children of israel" mentioned in the Quran? - 12-06-2006

Thanks for that. Jazak Allah Khair.
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