Means, even the misguided Christians and the rightly guided Muslims will have an upper hand over the Jews until the Day of Judgment, and the Jews will not have an absolute ruling authority till then.

Just an observation, the verse in question only says that Allah will grant his (Jesus pbuh) followers predominance till the day of judgement and it doesn't say against who. In his first term, he was mainly facing opposition from the Jews, but it doesn't mean that Jesus and his followers won't face opposition from Jews only in his second coming. As a matter of fact the description of second coming of Jesus fullfils the prophecy of the Messiah that was promised to the Children of Isreal, and many righteous Jews thus may infact join Jesus (p) and competely follow him (p).

According to the hadiths his opposition would be mainly from the Dajjal and his followers (and they won't be only Jews).

Brother Kadafi we can discuss over Ruh when we know what it is, you said there are many meanings of word Ruh and put some examples but brother when word Ruh have not any definition, as Allah said in Quran “they ask you that what is Ruh? Tell them it is beyond your senses (you are not able to understand) it is “Amr-a-Rabbi” so leaves it” (bani isra’eel) then how you got many meanings of it.

Wa'alaikuum Salaam akhee,

Sorry for my delayed reply. The article was written by brother Shaheed.

Concernin' the Ruh, Allah (Exalted is He) said:

"The Ruh (the spirit) is one of the things, the knowledge of which is only with my Lord. And of knowledge, you (mankind) have been given only a little.'')

The Ruh has been described by Allah in the Qu'ran and by the Prophet (PEace and blessings of Allah be upon him) in the Sunnah and various adjectives and verbs have been used in conjuction with the term Ruh. We have to believe in these attributes of the Ruh.

As for the ayat 17 in Surah Maryam, it's established that it was Jibreal.

Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyah said: the majority of scholars said that this refers to Jibreel (peace be upon him), and that Allaah called him al-Rooh al-Ameen, Rooh al-Qudus and Jibreel.”

In the tafsir of Ibn Khatir, it's stated:

(and he appeared before her in the form of a man in all respects.) [19:17] This means that he came to her in the form of a perfect and complete man. Mujahid, Ad-Dahhak, Qatadah, Ibn Jurayj, Wahb bin Munabbih and As-Suddi all commented on Allah's statement,

[فَأَرْسَلْنَآ إِلَيْهَآ رُوحَنَا]

(then We sent to her Our Ruh,) "It means Jibril.''

Ruh is used differently in the Qu'ran regardin' Jibrael and the soul. Mankind has been given limited knowledge concernin' it.

The problem that you have brother is that you assume to much. No one described how the Ruh looks like, and no one ever attempted to fully describe the unseen. What brother Shaheed has done is to give reference where the Ruh means and what it relates to (i.e. Spirit - Jibrael or soul). Remember, that only a little of the knowledge has been given to mankind and hence why many of the past scholars never discussed it fully.

Brother kadafi a big part of your discussion round about the word “tuwaffa” (3/55) and you got its meaning “to take in full” but this is a one portion of this word, the meaning that could fully covered this word is “to get back as exact as it was given or taken” This is the reason that this word is commonly used for death. Ruh is the part of human that given by Allah at once from aalam-a-amr and the rest (body) is created step by step here in aalam-a-khalq, the word “tuwaffa” deals with the first portion not with both Ruh & Body, because only Ruh is got back not in full. For example

39/42. It is Allâh, Who get back your souls (as it was given to you) (tuwaffa) at the time of death, and of those, too, that die not during their sleep. He keeps those (souls) for which He has ordained death and sends the rest for a term appointed. Verily, in this are signs for a people who think deeply.

6/60. It is He, Who takes your souls (tuwaffa) by night (when you are asleep), and has knowledge of all that you have done by day, then he raises (wakes) you up again that a term appointed (your life period) be fulfilled, then in the end unto Him will be your return. Then He will inform you what you used to do.

Both the ayaat clearly saying that the word “tuwaffa” relate only to Ruh not with the both Ruh & body. In your discussion you tried to prove that the word Tuwaffa is used for those persons too that die not and present above two verses as reference, but, as I have said, we don’t know what is Ruh and how Allah take it back when we are in sleep, its goes out of our bodies or not? May word Ruh used for senses because in sleep we die not but become senseless (in case of death, too, nothing destroy but we lost our senses – remain in sleepy condition) and its common for every one not in a special case. Secondly sleep (for those that die not) is the condition for “tuwaffa” not at any time and it’s for a very limited time. Thirdly sleep is name

Brother, you seem to misconstrue the meanin' of tuwaffa and instead of offerin' a refutal, you claim that it's not related to those who die not.

The term tuwaffa is used for those who die not as evidently in the verse you cited:

It is Allâh Who takes away the souls at the time of their death, and those that die not during their sleep. He keeps those (souls) for which He has ordained death and sends the rest for a term appointed. Verily, in this are signs for a people who think deeply.

Which means those who are alive that do not die. Your claim was that tuwaffa means death, and how can it mean death whilst tuwaffa is used for those who are alive.

You then argued that just because tuwaffa relates to those who sleep, you cited a supplication (dua) from the Prophet (Peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) which I cannot seem to be locating this dua anywhere and it has nothin' to do with tuwaffa since the term used for death ordered by Allah (Exalted is He) is mawt.

Let see another ayah of Surah A’raf

7/37. Who is more unjust than one who invents a lie against Allâh or rejects His Ayât (proofs, evidences, verses, lessons, signs, revelations, etc.)? For such their appointed portion (good things of this worldly life and their period of stay therein) will reach them from the Book (of Decrees) until, when Our Messengers (the angel of death and his assistants) come to them to get back their souls (tuwaffa), they (the angels) will say: "Where are those whom you used to invoke and worship besides Allâh," they will reply, "They have vanished and deserted us." And they will bear witness against themselves, that they were disbelievers.

The word tuwaffa is clearly used for death, when this word is, usually, used for death why we feel the need of and try to change it’s meaning in the case of Isa (as) the reason is only one – the ayaat-a-qurani are less important for us but ahadith have much importance. We have the courage to change the meaning of Quran but not able to leave the ahadith that stand against the Quran.

Subhan'Allah akhee and you call this a reply? Brother, these verses are discussed in the treatise and if you had read it, you would have found that these verses are used figuratively for death.

The article discusses that that takin' the soul at the appointed time is an act of the angels when Allah (Exalted is He) completes anyone's appointed time and commands that death to be given to him. That's why to depict what is happenin', the word mawt is never used but tuwaffa.

Furthermore, the Glorious Qu'ran has used mawt in relation to hayah but NEVER for tuwaffa against hayah.

For instance,

Yet they have taken besides Him other alîhâh (gods) who created nothing but are themselves created, and possess neither harm nor benefit for themselves, and possess no power (of causing) death, nor (of giving) life, nor of raising the dead.

Who has created death and life that He may test you which of you is best in deed. And He is the All-Mighty, the Oft-Forgiving;

And more at 2:260; 30:19; 2:164; 16:65; 45:5; 3:49 & 42:9

Here, the term mawt is used INSTEAD of tuwaffa. If tuwaffa really meant death, then Allah (Exalted is He) would have used tuwaffa but it doesn't.

Molana abaidullah sindhi (very famous Aalim) is saying, in his tafseer (Illhaam ur rahman) for 3/55
“The meaning of “muttawafika” is death. And the ideology that Isa (as) is alive is only a “yahoodi” and “sa’aibee” perception. This concept penetrated in muslims by “yahoodi and irani”. They did not want the muslim pay attention over the ayaah of Surah Saff that the main purpose of revealing islam is to overpowered it (islam) over every other religion, they did not want the muslim act upon and every other religion minimized. So they gave the concept that it will be happened when Isa (as) will descend………………. the base is quran and quran have not any verse that indicating the descending of Isa (as)” (Illhaam ul Rehman, book 2)

The same Ubaidullah Sindhi who rejects the Sahih ahadeeth? Ubaidullah Sindhi is a Deobandi scholar and clearly since he rejects the Sunnah, he automatically rejects many rulings that are not found in the Qu'ran.

5/117. I did not say to them except what Thou didst command me: __ `serve God, my Lord and your Lord,' and I was a witness over them, so long as I remained among them; but when Thou didst take me, Thou Thyself wast the watcher over them; and Thou art a witness over all things.

“Due to the many of the researchers did not take the concept of descending of Isa (as) and Imam Mahdi as Ahl-a-Sunnat’s concept, for example there is no indication of these concepts in famous books “al muwa’qif” + “muqa’sid” and there is no criticism by exegesist or annotator of these books. It means the persons have such “Aqa’aid” did not think over deeply” (Illhaam ur Rehman)

Notice again how the word tuwaffa was used in verse 177 instead of mawt. And which researchers? I could cite the quotations of all the past reconigzed scholars of Islam who wrote about the descendin' of Isa ibn Maryam as a belief of Ahlu As-Sunnah Wal-Jama'ah provided with muttawatir hadeeths.

3/55 Qa’taada and some other “mufasareen” said it means Allah will take him up and then give him death. Ibn-a-abbas said it means death.

Brother, be careful where you take your information from. The hadith pertainin' to Ibn Abbas sayin' that it means death is NOT sahih. It's without an isnad and Bukhari reported it. Ibn Hajar traced the chains of this narration. The correct meaning of tawaffa is hold by the majority of all the tafsirs.

4/159. And there is none of the people of the Scripture (Jews and Christians), but must believe in him ['Iesa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), as only a Messenger of Allâh and a human being], before his ['Iesa (Jesus) or a Jew's or a Christian's] death (at the time of the appearance of the angel of death). And on the Day of Resurrection, he will be a witness against them.

Is the word of this verse are claiming or there is any other ayah in quran tells us that Isa (as) will come again, indeed not. These are, only, the thinking and assumptions of peoples, every one assumes from different ayaat of Quran that He will descend, most probably this ayah.

Commonly take the meanings of the words before death – “at the time of the appearance of the angel of death” (as you took too) but it is not right, the ayah is not describing the time, so before death means there could be any time before death. And certainly it should be because ayah is not saying that their Aimaan will not be beneficiary for them, as saying in Quran

Before the ayah you cited, Allah (Exalted is He) said that they neither killed him, nor crucified him. The word used in these ayah is mawt since death is discussed. Isa Ibn Maryam will taste death like everyone else. If that had not been the case, the word tuwaffa would have been used in Surah An-Nisa.

85/40. Then their Faith could not avail them when they saw Our punishment. (Like) this has been the way of Allâh in dealing with His slaves. And there the disbelievers lost utterly (when Our Torment covered them).

It means they embrace Islam in proper time before their death, and would be called Momin.

Let see further, according to you, from the day when this event was happened every yahoodi or Isa’ee is “Momin”, because if you take the death of Isa (as) then He is alive (according to some sects) and up to the day He will die, every yahoodi or isa’ee will has brought “Aiman” over Him, and if you take the death of every yahoodi or isa’ee, the meanings are the same that every one will take Aiman proper time before one’s death. I have cleared above that their Aiman would, indeed, be beneficiary for them. Further you said Isa (as) would be witness against them, what for He would be a witness? When every one has brought Aimaan then what is the need of witness, is He the witness of their Aimaan? Certainly not, because ayah is clearly saying that witness would be against bad or wrong deeds so there would be some that considered “kafir” (it means the assumption that every one will become Momin is not right), but how Isa (as) could be a witness against those persons that died in between the period from taken up to descending?

Let me first state that I really have trouble graspin' what you're saying. This is not to deride your or anything but I can't really fully comprehend what you're sayin'. I would greatly appreciate if you could be more clearler in the future so that no further misunderstandings arise.

Now back to what you tried to say.

What you seem to be forgettin' is that the verse implies the People of the Book durin' the period that he will retrn to earth. All the people of the book will believe in him and become his followers (i.e. Muslims)

Tafsir Ibn Kathir:

(And there is none of the People of the Scripture, but must believe in him, before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection, he will be a witness against them.) Ibn Jarir recorded that Ibn `Abbas commented,

[وَإِن مِّنْ أَهْلِ الْكِتَـبِ إِلاَّ لَيُؤْمِنَنَّ بِهِ قَبْلَ مَوْتِهِ]

(And there is none of the People of the Scripture, but must believe in him, before his death.) before the death of `Isa, son of Maryam, peace be upon him. Al-`Awfi reported similar from Ibn `Abbas. Abu Malik commented;

[إِلاَّ لَيُؤْمِنَنَّ بِهِ قَبْلَ مَوْتِهِ]

(but must believe in him, before his death.) "This occurs after `Isa returns and before he dies, as then, all of the People of the Scriptures will believe in him.''


In the chapter about the Prophets in his Sahih, under, "The Descent of `Isa, Son of Maryam,'' Al-Bukhari recorded that Abu Hurayrah said that the Messenger of Allah said,

«وَالَّذِي نَفْسِي بِيَدِهِ، لَيُوشِكَنَّ أَنْ يَنْزِلَ فِيكُمُ ابْنُ مَرْيَمَ حَكَمًا عَدْلًا، فَيَكْسِرَ الصَّلِيبَ، وَيَقْتُلَ الْخِنْزِيرَ، وَيَضَعَ الْجِزْيَةَ، وَيَفِيضَ المَالُ حَتَّى لَا يَقْبَلَهُ أَحَدٌ، حَتَّى تَكُونَ السَّجْدَةُ خَيْرًا لَهُمْ مِنَ الدُّنْيَا وَمَا فِيهَا»

(By Him in Whose Hands my soul is, the son of Maryam (`Isa) will shortly descend among you as a just ruler, and will break the cross, kill the pig and abolish the Jizyah. Then there will be an abundance of wealth and nobody will accept charitable gifts any more. At that time, one prostration will be better for them than this life and all that is in it.) Abu Hurayrah then said, "Read if you will,

[وَإِن مِّنْ أَهْلِ الْكِتَـبِ إِلاَّ لَيُؤْمِنَنَّ بِهِ قَبْلَ مَوْتِهِ وَيَوْمَ الْقِيَـمَةِ يَكُونُ عَلَيْهِمْ شَهِيداً ]

(And there is none of the People of the Scripture, but must believe in him, before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection, he will be a witness against them.)'' Muslim recorded this Hadith. So, Allah's statement,

[قَبْلَ مَوْتِهِ]

(before his death) refers to the death of `Isa, son of Maryam.

them while I dwelt amongst them, but when You took me up, You were the Watcher over them, and You are a Witness to all things.

Further more the words “lay uminan’na ba’hee" لَيُؤْمِنَنَّ بِهِ is clearly future sentence (not for past or present) so the verse is clear about that this is for those persons that were alive at that time and would be born after the revealing of this verse. And the other thing is Allah use the word “ahl-a-kitaab” than that of Nisara or Yahood.

So brother as I understand this verse its meaning is “amongst Yahood + Nisara (that were alive at revealing time of this verse and will be born afterward), every one from Ahl-a-Kitaab (but really able to called ahl-a-kitaab) would bring Aimaan over (that Isa (as) was the messenger of Allah and He was not hanged) before one’s death and would be the witness against those (that are insisting Isa (as) is the son of Allah or he was hanged) as Quran says

Brother, again, you're mis-interpretatin' the verse. See how Isa ibn Maryam said "I was a witness over them while I DWELT amongst them" referin' durin' the period that he was send to Bani Israel. And where was the People of the book used in that verse? Bear also in mind that again the word tawwasuf is used when Isa Ibn Maryam said:
"when You took me up"

However, in Surah An-Nisa, he will be a witness for those who believed in him when he returned. Two different time periods which are also explained in these verses. No twistin' required.

And the rest of your "references" ( I don't know whether I should call them references) are incomplete. I cannot search and verify for references who do not have a reference number or a source and moreover, some of them are mis-spelled which makes it even more difficult.

Bear in mind that I have not included quotations from the muttawatir hadith that report the descendin' of Isa Ibn Maryam nor did I dwell in the apparant Quranic verses that explain his return. I did not cite any statements of the major scholars who produced treatis explainin' fully the descendin' of Isa Ibn Maryam. Because I have the feeling that you will not pay attention to these statements since you also didn't pay heed to the explanations by brother sbwus.

In addition, Shias also hold the belief that Isa Ibn Maryam wil return.

Perhaps, when I do have more time, Insha'Allah, I will produce a single post with all the evidence contained in the Qur'an and the Sunnah regardin' the second-coming of Isa Ibn Maryam (Peace be upon him).


Wa'Alaikuum

Originally Posted by kadafi

Perhaps, when I do have more time, Insha'Allah, I will produce a single post with all the evidence contained in the Qur'an and the Sunnah regardin' the second-coming of Isa Ibn Maryam (Peace be upon him).

I think that is an excellent idea to work on after your exams. I look forward to it, insha'Allah.

There are so many misconceptions about the ahadith that need to be refuted subhan'Alah.

Great post, br. kadafi.

Ascension of Jesus (pbuh)

Question: Some recent writings are propagating that Jesus (peace be upon him) died a natural death, never ascended to heaven, and was buried here on Earth. Based on the evidence I gathered, I myself am convinced that Jesus (peace be upon him) was raised to the heavens alive by Allah, and that he will return when Allah wills it. Currently I am stuck at the following two places: 1. The word “raf`” is used 29 times in the Qur’ân, but when it was used to mention the ascension of Jesus (peace be upon him), it is followed by the preposition ilâ (toward) [4:158]. By this usage, the Qur’ân alludes to the ascension of Jesus to Heaven. 2. The word “tawaffâ” is also used in the Quran 29 times, but the problem for me right now is that when used in [3:55] and elsewhere in the Quran, it can either mean “sleep” or “cause to die”. When used in the context of Jesus’ ascension, in my understanding it means that Allah caused him to go into some sort of sleep [4:60]. If you can somehow clarify the above-mentioned words in relation to Jesus’ ascension to heaven linguistically, it would be of great help to me.

Answered by Sheikh Khâlid al-Sayf

The word “tawaffâ”

The word “tawaffâ” essentially means for something “to arrive at its fulfillment”, like the period of time being fulfilled of a person’s months and days on Earth. The word is also used to mean “to take or receive in full” like in “tawaffaytu al-mâl” meaning “I received the money in full. Actually, these two meanings are very close to each other.

The word “tawaffâ” does not mean “to die” except in the presence of a contextual indicator that shows that this meaning is intended. It may be used to mean death or other things, but this is something understood from the context in which the word is being used.

In Arabic, there are three usages in which the word “tawaffâ” is used:

The first is “sleep”. Allah says: “Allah takes (yatwaffâ) the souls at the time of their death, and those that die not during their sleep; then He withholds those on whom He has passed the decree of death and sends the others back till an appointed term; most surely there are signs in this for a people who reflect.” [Sûrah al-Zumar: 42]

Here the word “tawaffâ” refers to the taking the souls from their voluntary actions during sleep and withholding fully the rational faculties and discretion until the person wakes up.

The second is “death”. This is in the context of a person’s time coming to an end. Here, the soul is taken without the body, so that Allah takes over full possession of the soul. Allah says: “until, when death comes unto one of you, Our messengers receive him (tawaffathu) , and they neglect not.” [Sûrah al-An`âm: 61]

As for the body, there is no reference to it being taken or received. It remains on the Earth and is covered by the soil.

The third is the taking of the body and soul together. This is what happened with Christ (peace be upon him). In this way, he ceased to be in the state of the people of Earth who need food, drink, clothing, and rest. His state is not like that of the denizens of the Earth in such matters.

Here we have the meaning of “tawaffâ” in the verse: “Behold! Allah said: ‘O Jesus! I will take you (mutawaffîka) and raise you to Myself” [Sûrâh Âl `Imrân: 55] It means that Allah will take him and raise him up from the Earth without death. There are two possible, equally valid understandings of this:

1. Allah is saying: “I am raising you up wholly so that they will not beset you with anything.”

2. Allah is saying: “I am receiving you.”

Nowhere does Allah ever mention in the Qur’ân that Christ died or was killed. If Allah had wanted to inform us that Jesus (peace be upon him) had died, he would have said: “They did not kill him nor did they crucify him. Instead he died.” This is not what is being said in the Qur’ân. If Allah had intended death when he says “tawaffâ” that would make Christ (peace be upon him) no different than the rest of the people in that their souls are taken up. If Christ’s soul had left his body, his body would have remained on Earth like the bodies of the rest of the Prophets. This is why Allah says: “Nay, Allah raised him up to Himself” [Sûrah al-Nisâ’: 158] in order to make it clear that the raising up took place upon both the soul and the body.

This is attested to by all the authentic hadîth regarding the descent of Jesus (peace be upon him) at the end of time in body and soul. These hadîth are many and they are well-known. They have reached us with so many lines of transmission so as to be mutawâtir.

Jesus’ return is also attested to by Allah’s words: “And there is none of the People of the Scripture but will certainly believe in him before his death. And on the Day of Resurrection, he will be a witness against them.” [Sûrah al-Nisâ: 159]

This verse refers to his death after returning at the end of time. This is why the verb “will certainly believe” comes a promise that is indicative of the future tense.

Then we have the hadîth where the Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “By Him in Whose hand is my life, the son of Mary (peace be upon him) will descend among you as a just judge. He will break crosses, kill swine and abolish Jizya and the wealth will pour forth to such an extent that no one will accept it.” [ (2222) and Sahîh Muslim (155)]

In summary, the term “tawaffâ” in Arabic does not in itself apply to the spirit to the exclusion of the body, or necessarily to both together, nor to sleep – except by way of the context in which it is used. This is the case for many Arabic words.

The word “raf`”

The word “raf`” essentially means “to place”. It can be used for physical objects or for abstract concepts. With respect o physical objects, its literal meaning is that of being moved to a higher position. And object can be raised. A plane or a wave can rise on its own.

With respect to abstract meanings, the term is understood according to the requirements of how it is being used. For example, the Prophet (peace be upon him) said: “The pen is lifted from three, the child until he matures…” In this context, it refers to the absence of legal accountability. In another context, we say that a person experiences a raise in his social status, prestige, and nobility.

As for the meaning of “raf`” in the verse: “Nay, Allah raised him up to Himself” [Sûrah al-Nisâ’: 158], this refers to being raised in a physical, spatial sense. This is because when the word is used in connection with physical bodies, it is meant literally to mean movement to a higher position in space. This is what occurred with Christ (peace be upon him).

The understanding of actual movement through space is further supported by the fact that the verb is followed by prepositional phrase “ilayhi” (to Himself).

In summary, the term “raf`” as used in the verse is on its literal meaning that Jesus (peace be upon him) was raised up in both body and spirit, since the term is used literally in this way when referring to physical bodies. It is not to be understood metaphorically.

From:
http://www.islamtoday.com/show_detai...main_cat_id=18

excellent post