Assalamoalikum
Question to only our salafi./ahle hadeeth/ghair muqalid brothers. What is the exact idat of divorced intercoursed woman? Describe briefly
قال النبي محمد صلى الله عليه وآله وسلم:*الـحياءُ شُعْبَةٌ مِنَ الاِيِمَانِ*
و قال ايضا:*الحياء لاياتى الا بخير
و قال ايضا:*اذا لم تستحي،فاصنع ما شئت*
If the woman is not pregnant and she menstruates (is of child-bearing age), then her ‘iddah is three complete menstrual cycles after the divorce, i.e., her period comes then she becomes pure, then her period comes again and she becomes pure, then her period comes again and she becomes pure. That is three complete menstrual cycles, regardless of whether the time between them is long or short. Based on this, if he divorces her and she is breastfeeding and does not menstruate until two years later, then she remains in ‘iddah until she has had three menstrual cycles, so she may stay in this state for two years or more. The point is that she should go through three complete menstrual cycles whether the time involved is long or short, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And divorced women shall wait (as regards their marriage) for three menstrual periods”
If the woman is not pregnant and she menstruates (is of child-bearing age), then her ‘iddah is three complete menstrual cycles after the divorce, i.e., her period comes then she becomes pure, then her period comes again and she becomes pure, then her period comes again and she becomes pure. That is three complete menstrual cycles, regardless of whether the time between them is long or short. Based on this, if he divorces her and she is breastfeeding and does not menstruate until two years later, then she remains in ‘iddah until she has had three menstrual cycles, so she may stay in this state for two years or more. The point is that she should go through three complete menstrual cycles whether the time involved is long or short, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning):
“And divorced women shall wait (as regards their marriage) for three menstrual periods”
The verse u choose is المطلقات يتربصن بثلاثة قروؤ
So i asked quro have two meanings one period and second cleaniness.
I asked why people choose period meaning instead of cleaniness meaning.
Cuz one u choose meaning eather said by allah or propher or other people derived by qiyas method. And we take quran and hadeeth. So kindly tell why took period meaning
Hope now my question is clear
قال النبي محمد صلى الله عليه وآله وسلم:*الـحياءُ شُعْبَةٌ مِنَ الاِيِمَانِ*
و قال ايضا:*الحياء لاياتى الا بخير
و قال ايضا:*اذا لم تستحي،فاصنع ما شئت*
Assalamoalikum
Question to only our salafi./ahle hadeeth/ghair muqalid brothers. What is the exact idat of divorced intercoursed woman? Describe briefly
format_quote Originally Posted by فصيح الياسين
I searched books even or any link yo it but failed
The verse u choose is المطلقات يتربصن بثلاثة قروؤ
So i asked quro have two meanings one period and second cleaniness.
I asked why people choose period meaning instead of cleaniness meaning.
Cuz one u choose meaning eather said by allah or propher or other people derived by qiyas method. And we take quran and hadeeth. So kindly tell why took period meaning
Hope now my question is clear
Still not sure what you're asking but Qiyas is perfectly acceptable in Islam and you cannot reject it. I'm a bit surprised that you're even suggesting this as you have asked a Salafi to answer your question - not that it's even relevant.
If you're asking which of the two meanings we are choosing then you've already answered your own question. The iddat of a divorce woman by talaq is three menstrual cycles i.e. period starts then ends (i.e. becoming 'clean' or pure) is one cycle. When this happens three times the iddat is over.
And verily for everything that a slave loses there is a substitute, but the one who loses Allah will never find anything to replace Him.” [Related by Ibn al-Qayyim in ad-Dâ' wad-Dawâ Fasl 49]
Look how you narrow your search area with the below comment...
format_quote Originally Posted by فصيح الياسين
Assalamoalikum
Question to only our salafi./ahle hadeeth/ghair muqalid brothers. What is the exact idat of divorced intercoursed woman? Describe briefly
And verily for everything that a slave loses there is a substitute, but the one who loses Allah will never find anything to replace Him.” [Related by Ibn al-Qayyim in ad-Dâ' wad-Dawâ Fasl 49]
Still not sure what you're asking but Qiyas is perfectly acceptable in Islam and you cannot reject it. I'm a bit surprised that you're even suggesting this as you have asked a Salafi to answer your question - not that it's even relevant.
If you're asking which of the two meanings we are choosing then you've already answered your own question. The iddat of a divorce woman by talaq is three menstrual cycles i.e. period starts then ends (i.e. becoming 'clean' or pure) is one cycle. When this happens three times the iddat is over.
I knw bro wht madahib said about it alhumdulillah but i asked from those who do not follow madhab and also qiyas and ijma is not acceptable according to non madhab persons as we heard and read
and this would turn my topic to other thing
قال النبي محمد صلى الله عليه وآله وسلم:*الـحياءُ شُعْبَةٌ مِنَ الاِيِمَانِ*
و قال ايضا:*الحياء لاياتى الا بخير
و قال ايضا:*اذا لم تستحي،فاصنع ما شئت*
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