In Islam are Married Couples required to procreate ?

Abu Dawood (2050) narrated that Ma’qil ibn Yasaar said:

A man came to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and said, “I have found a woman who is of good lineage and is beautiful, but she does not bear children. Should I marry her?” He said, “No.” Then he came again with the same question and he told him not to marry her. Then he came a third time with the same question and he said: “Marry those who are loving and fertile, for I will be proud of your great numbers before the other nations.”

Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Irwa’ al-Ghaleel, 1784.

That you should have kids after marriage, in a sentence.

is the hadith saying that you shouldn't marry a woman who doesn't want to have children? or is it saying that you shouldn't marry a woman who can't have children? I'm asking because there is a word or phrase missing in the hadith.

there's a difference between the two cases. and since a man can marry more than one woman, it's possible for him to marry another woman if one can't have children or if his first wife can't have children he can marry another one. sometimes, in the past people married older widows and divorcees to take care of them (i'm unsure if they were past the age of childbirth or other details). many of the Prophet's wives didn't have children after the Prophet (SAW) married them (although those who were previously married may have had children from their first marriage). I don't have information about that. Did the sahaba marry women known to be unable to have children? is it forbidden to marry such a woman according to the hadith?

it's important not to cite a hadith unless it is complete. and to make sure you don't make any mistakes typing it because that can make misunderstandings. the above is incomplete. it has a portion missing.

^ cannot bear children. Chill sis, I edited it, the website had it written down wrong.

thank you sister. i think that would be discouraging to women who can't have children. we need to look at the specific circumstances regarding that hadith. the ulama say that some of the Prophet (SAW)'s commands were for specific situations and can't be used as a general command. of course only an aalim will be able to tell you which are and which aren't. (I don't agree with some of the examples the book cited because they seemed more general to me - like the case of Abu Sufyan's wife when she complained about Abu Sufyan being a miser and the Prophet SAW told her she could take what she needed from his money for her and her children's expenses. this case seems general but some ulama (scholars) say that it was specific for her case and the judge will have to see individual cases and decide for each one separately. I personally think, as do other scholars, that the ruling in that hadith can be used by every woman who's husband is a miser and doesn't spend money on his family. And Allah knows best). but regarding the case of the woman who didn't bear children, it's very much possible that it ruling regarding that particular man and woman and and the ruling might not be general and every case would have to be judged individually.

you would need to see whether the man in the hadith was married before, did he have children, the religiousness and knowledgeability of the woman, whether she had been married before, etc.

Allah knows best but i believe that none of the rulings of islam are such that they cause difficulties for anyone. a man with another wife and children would probably not have been stopped from marrying a divorcee or widow who couldn't bear children.

and Allah knows best.

some men are also impotent - i guess its best for such people to look for spouses who do not want children / any more children

Great thread. I wanted to know that as well. Seems like overpopulation is becoming a problem and adoption seems to be a better idea.

format_quote Originally Posted by Haafizah

Abu Dawood (2050) narrated that Ma’qil ibn Yasaar said:

A man came to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and said, “I have found a woman who is of good lineage and is beautiful, but she does not bear children. Should I marry her?” He said, “No.” Then he came again with the same question and he told him not to marry her. Then he came a third time with the same question and he said: “Marry those who are loving and fertile, for I will be proud of your great numbers before the other nations.”

Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Irwa’ al-Ghaleel, 1784.

Is it a reliable strong hadith?

It's classed as Saheeh.

Allah is the one who gives children to His Slaves. You can be fertile or infertile, but if God wills one to have children then they will, and if He wills them not to have any children then they won't. Allah knows best....

To Allah belongs the dominion of the heavens and the earth. He creates what He wills (and plans). He bestows (children) male or female according to His Will (and Plan), Or He bestows both males and females, and He leaves barren whom He will: for He is full of Knowledge and Power. (Quran 42:49-50)

format_quote Originally Posted by WRITER

thank you sister. i think that would be discouraging to women who can't have children. we need to look at the specific circumstances regarding that hadith. the ulama say that some of the Prophet (SAW)'s commands were for specific situations and can't be used as a general command. of course only an aalim will be able to tell you which are and which aren't. (I don't agree with some of the examples the book cited because they seemed more general to me - like the case of Abu Sufyan's wife when she complained about Abu Sufyan being a miser and the Prophet SAW told her she could take what she needed from his money for her and her children's expenses. this case seems general but some ulama (scholars) say that it was specific for her case and the judge will have to see individual cases and decide for each one separately. I personally think, as do other scholars, that the ruling in that hadith can be used by every woman who's husband is a miser and doesn't spend money on his family. And Allah knows best). but regarding the case of the woman who didn't bear children, it's very much possible that it ruling regarding that particular man and woman and and the ruling might not be general and every case would have to be judged individually.

you would need to see whether the man in the hadith was married before, did he have children, the religiousness and knowledgeability of the woman, whether she had been married before, etc.

Allah knows best but i believe that none of the rulings of islam are such that they cause difficulties for anyone. a man with another wife and children would probably not have been stopped from marrying a divorcee or widow who couldn't bear children.

and Allah knows best.

Very true. There may be a longer version of the hadith, and how it is to be interpreted and applied using the principles of jurisprudence to a specific case is something only an Imam/judge/scholar can do for you, competently.

Try searching IslamQA. They usually have detailed answers to these sorts of things.

format_quote Originally Posted by ardianto

Marry a lot,

So how many? 5? 7? 10? 15?!

Doesn't make any sense...

lol, ask them what?!

no one is allowed to marry more than 4 wives, khalaas !

^ At any one time of course...