10-01-2008, 05:08 PM
i dunno if this question has already been aasked...
I live in Canada, and over here there are basically two eids (and two first days of Ramadan)....meaning that half of the Muslims (mostly the Afghans and the Arabs) here follow Saudi Arabia and the other half (Pakistanis, Indians...Africans..) follow the sighting of the moon. So for some, when it is announced in Saudi that Eid is tomorrow, then it is assumed Eid is also tomorrow over here, with or without the sighting of the moon. Wheres for the others, eid is usually the day after... the same goes for first day of Ramadan...
I follow my parents who follow the masjid close to home...but the thing is, who is right? its weird not fasting the first day of Ramadan, and weirder fasting when some of your fellow Muslims are celebrating Eid..
I've heard that both parties are right, but how can that be? Wut bout 100s of yrs ago when phones, internet didnt exist? How did people living in canada know that it was eid in other parts of the world? also, if this way is right, then it wouldnt be wrong to pray fajr when it was fajr time in saudi, but night timme here in canada or the states?
arent you supposed to look for the moon and then start ramadan/eid? and if the moon is sighted in saudi., then should it also be sighted here the same day?
Im not discriminating groups, i just want to know the reason and logic behind it. Jazaka'allah khairan.
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