Why did Imam Malik & Imam Ibn Hanbal allow temporary marriage?

[The Khan]

:sl:

These doubts are in my mind, I hope someone can shed some light?

Muhammad ibn Idris ash-Shafi`i, a 9th century Sunni Shafi'i Islamic scholar writes:
“ Nikah Mut'ah is our eyes is false, whilst Imam Malik deemed it permissible, as proof he says it was halaal and permissible, it was removed and was not abrogated ”
^ Al Hidaya Volume 1 p. 13
^ See also Fath al-Bari Volume 9 p. 73 Dhikr Mut'ah

“Mut'ah cannot be Nikah, Mut'ah is false, it should not be practised, Ibn Abbas and Imam Malik had differing views, in their views this was practicable"
^ Fatawi Qadhi Khan Volume 1 p 151 al Nikah Fayl

Ahmad ibn Hanbal, a 9th century Sunni Islamic scholar writes:
“ In the same way that Ibn Abbas deemed Mut'ah to be halaal, Imam Ibn Hanbal also stated Mut'ah was halaal ”
^ Tafsir ibn Kathir Volume 1 p. 14, Surah Nisa verse 24


“ Ibn Abbas and other party amongst the Sahaba narrated traditions that Mut'ah is halaal, and Ibn Hanbal also said that it was practicable ”
^ Al-Bidayah wa al-Nihayah Volume 4 and p. 94, Dhikr Khayber

“ Ibn Abbas another Sahaba said that Mut'ah can be utilised when needed, Ibn Hanbal also narrated the same
^ Ibn Kathir's in his Tafseer, Surah an-Nisa, Page 3 under the verse 4:24

What is the view of the Hanbali and Maliki madhab today regarding this? If disallowing temporary marriage, why are they going against the words of their founding Imams?