/* */

PDA

View Full Version : Origin of words in the Qur'ân



Justufy
03-22-2010, 09:33 PM
The qur'ân is said to be inimitable, that is that It cannot be imitated in style and language, however certain words appear to have different origins,

As an example the word qur'ân itself is not of Arab origin but of syrian origin,

âya (that means sign or verses) comes from hebrew, surâ probably comes from Syrian also and mus'haf ( codex or exemplary of the qur'ân) comes from Ethiopian, so my question is the following, why is there such an apparent diversity of the origins of terms in the qur'ân?

Thank you for the replies and enlightenment and please forgive the poor quality of my English.
Reply

Login/Register to hide ads. Scroll down for more posts
Uthman
03-22-2010, 10:23 PM
Greetings Justufy,

You are correct in saying that some of the words used in the Qur'an had not always been a part of the Arabic language. However, every word used in the Qur'an had already become an integral part of the Arabic language by the time the Qur'an was revealed to Prophet Muhammad (:saws:).

This does not affect the fact that the Qur'an is inimitable in terms of it's unique literary form, unique linguistic genre, matchless eloquence and frequency of rhetorical features.

Your English is fine, by the way. :)

Regards
Reply

awais
03-23-2010, 12:03 AM
This article is nice, and sums up many views, the introduction to the book "Foreign Vocabulary of the Qur'an" by the Orientalist Arthur Jeffery.


format_quote Originally Posted by http://www.answering -islam .org/Books/Jeffery/Vocabulary/intro.htm

... Quite early in the history of Islam, Muslims themselves were confronted with the perplexing problem of these foreign words, for it presented itself immediately they were called upon to face the task of interpreting their Scripture.
...

It is clear that in the earliest circle of exegetes it was fully recognized and frankly admitted that there were numerous foreign words in the Qur'an. Only a little later, however, when the dogma of the eternal nature of the Qur'ran was being elaborated, this was as strenuously denied, so that al-Jawaliqi can quote on the other side the statement of Abu 'Ubaida 8 as given by al-Hasan - "I heard Abu 'Ubaida say that whoever pretends that there is in the Qur'an anything other than the Arabic tongue has made a serious charge against God, and he quoted the verse 'Verily we have made it an Arabic Qur'an.'"9 The question is discussed by many Muslim writers, and is excellently summarized by as-Suyuti in the Introduction to his treatise Al-Muhadhdhab, and further in chap. xxxviii of his Itqan (Calcutta ed., pp. 314-326).

It appears that in the Schools a majority of authorities were against the existence of foreign words in the Qur'an. "The Imams differ," says as-Suyuti (Itq, 314) "as to the occurrence of foreign words in the Qur'an, but the majority, among whom are the Imam ash-Shafi'i,1 and Ibn Jarir,2 and Abu 'Ubaida, and the Qadi Abu Bakr,3 and Ibn Faris,4 are against their occurrence therein." The fundamental argument of these authorities is that the Qur'an in many passages refers to itself as an Arabic Qur'an,5 and they lay particular stress on the passage xli, 44:

"Now had we made it a foreign Qur'an they would have said - Why are its signs not made plain? Is it foreign and Arabic?"6 The Qur'an thus lays stress on the fact that this revelation has been sent down in a form which the Arabs will easily understand - and how, they ask, could the Arabs have been expected to understand it, were it sent down in a non-Arabic tongue?

...the conclusions of the philologers as to the existence of foreign words in the Qur'an, was that this was not strange in view of the fact that the Qur'an is the final revelation. The Qur'an itself states that when a Prophet was sent to any people he preached in the language of that people so as to be understood by them. Thus, e.g. we read in xiv, 4, "and we have sent no Prophet save in the tongue of his own people that (his message) might be plain to them ". So it is obvious that the Qur'an, being sent to the Arab people, must be in Arabic, but since it sums up and completes all previous revelations, it is only to be expected that technical terms of Hebrew and Syriac or other origin which were used in previous revelations should be included in this final revelation. Moreover, as the Qur'an is intended for all peoples, oue should not be surprised to find in it something from all languages,3 a point which is sometimes emphasized by a reference to the claim that the Qur'an contains all previous knowledge, and information about everything, which would not be true if it did not contain all languages.1 Obviously all of all languages was not contained, but what was sweetest, most pleasant, and most suitable.2

The most sensible statement on this whole question, however, is that suggested by as-Suyuti, Itq, 316, and expounded by ath-Tha'alibi 3 in his Kitab al-Jawahir, i,17 : " In my opinion the truth of the matter is this. The Qur'an is in plain Arabic containing no word which is not Arabic or which cannot be understood without the help of some other language. For these (so-called foreign) words belonged to the (language of the) ancient Arabs, in whose tongue the Qur'an was revealed, after they had had contact with other languages through commercial affairs and travel in Syria and Abyssinia, whereby the Arabs took over foreign words, altering some of them by dropping letters or lightening what was heavy in the foreign form. Then they used these words in their poetry and conversation so that they became like pure Arabic and were used in literature and thus occur in the Qur'an. So if any Arab is ignorant about these words it is like his ignorance of the genuine elements of some other dialect, just as Ibn 'Abbas did not know the meaning of Fatir, etc. Thus the truth is that these words were foreign, but the Arabs made use of them and Arabicized them, so from, this point of view they are Arabic.4 As for at-Tabari's opinion that in these cases the two languages agree word for word, it is far-fetched, for one of them is the original and the other a derivative as a rule, though we do not absolutely rule out coincidence in a few exceptional cases."

If challenged as to how, on this view, the Qur'an could be called "a plain Arabic Qur'an", its defenders reply with as-Suyati,.5 that the presence of a few foreign words therein no more makes it non-Arabic than the presence of many Arabic words in a Persian ode makes the ode non-Persian.

...So as-Suyuti concludes with al-Jawaliqi and Ibn al-Jauzi that both parties to the quarrel are right. 2 The great philologers were right in claiming that there are foreign words in the Qur'an, for in regard to origin these words are Persian or Syrian or Abyssinian. But the Imam ash-Shiafi'i and his followers are also right, for since these words have been adopted into the Arabic langutge and polished by the tongues of the Arabs, they are indeed Arabic.
I would love to be fluent in Arabic to read Suyuti's Itqan! (and of course the Qur'an, etc.) *sigh* :D
Reply

Justufy
03-23-2010, 01:10 AM
I remember reading somewhere that some of the words may have a totally different meaning. On another front here is an interesting read on the issue by Luxemberg, here it is argued that the Qur'ân could be based on earlier textes.

According to Islamic tradition, the Koran dates back to the 7th century, while the first examples of Arabic literature in the full sense of the phrase are found only two centuries later, at the time of the 'Biography of the Prophet'; that is, of the life of Mohammed as written by Ibn Hisham, who died in 828. We may thus establish that post-Koranic Arabic literature developed by degrees, in the period following the work of al-Khalil bin Ahmad, who died in 786, the founder of Arabic lexicography (kitab al-ayn), and of Sibawayh, who died in 796, to whom the grammar of classical Arabic is due.

Now, if we assume that the composition of the Koran was brought to an end in the year of the Prophet Mohammed's death, in 632, we find before us an interval of 150 years, during which there is no trace of Arabic literature worthy of note.
At that time, there were no Arab schools—except, perhaps, for the Christian centers of al-Anbar and al-Hira, in southern Mesopotamia, or what is now Iraq. The Arabs of that region had been Christianized and instructed by Syrian Christians. Their liturgical language was Syro-Aramaic. And this was the vehicle of their culture, and more generally the language of written communication.

Beginning in the third century, the Syrian Christians did not limit themselves to bringing their evangelical mission to nearby countries, like Armenia or Persia. They pressed on toward distant territories, all the way to the borders of China and the western coast of India, in addition to the entire Arabian peninsula all the way to Yemen and Ethiopia. It is thus rather probable that, in order to proclaim the Christian message to the Arabic peoples, they would have used (among others) the language of the Bedouins, or Arabic. In order to spread the Gospel, they necessarily made use of a mishmash of languages. But in an era in which Arabic was just an assembly of dialects and had no written form, the missionaries had no choice but to resort to their own literary language and their own culture; that is, to Syro-Aramaic. The result was that the language of the Koran was born as a written Arabic language, but one of Arab-Aramaic derivation


source: http://chiesa.espresso.repubblica.it...olo/7025?eng=y
Reply

Welcome, Guest!
Hey there! Looks like you're enjoying the discussion, but you're not signed up for an account.

When you create an account, you can participate in the discussions and share your thoughts. You also get notifications, here and via email, whenever new posts are made. And you can like posts and make new friends.
Sign Up
Justufy
03-23-2010, 01:23 AM
I would like to use this thread to ask something else, In surâ 108 if read with a Blachère (I hope this is the word in english) traduction the surâ makes no sense... However if read in syro-armaic the texte seemes to make more sense and could be linked to Peter, 5,8-9 in the p****ta
Thanks for the replies and again forgive my missuse of terms in the english language.
Reply

awais
03-23-2010, 01:26 AM
I find Luxenberg's theories to be really far fetched, and so do many academics.

format_quote Originally Posted by http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Syro-Aramaic_Reading_of_the_Koran#Academic_reviews
Luxenberg’s argument that the Qur’an has Syro-Aramaic origins has attracted debates in the academic community and popular media. Scholarly reviews have been critical of his book.[7][20][21][22]

The Qur'an is "the translation of a Syriac text," is how Angelika Neuwirth, a German scholar of Islam, describes Luxenberg's thesis - "The general thesis underlying his entire book thus is that the Qur'an is a corpus of translations and paraphrases of original Syriac texts recited in church services as elements of a lectionary." She considers it as "an extremely pretentious hypothesis which is unfortunately relying on rather modest foundations." Neuwirth points out that Luxenberg doesn't consider the previous work in Qur'an studies, but "limits himself to a very mechanistic, positivist linguistic method without caring for theoretical considerations developed in modem linguistics."[21]

Richard Kroes describes him as "unaware of much of the other literature on the subject" and that "quite a few of his theories are doubtful and motivated too much by a Christian apologetic agenda."[3] François de Blois, in the Journal of Qur'anic Studies, points to grammatical mistakes in Luxenberg's book:[3] "His grasp of Syriac is limited to knowledge of dictionaries and in his Arabic he makes mistakes that are typical for the Arabs of the Middle East."[3][20] He descrbies his book as "not a work of scholarship but of dilettantism."[20]

Dr Walid Saleh describes Luxemberg's method as "so idiosyncratic, so inconsistent, that it is simply impossible to keep his line of argument straight."[7] He adds that according to Luxenberg, for the last two hundred years, Western scholars "have totally misread the Qur'ān"; that no one can understand the Qur'an: "Only he can fret out for us the Syrian skeleton of this text."[7] Summing up his assessment of Luxenberg's method, he states:

" The first fundamental premise of his approach, that the Qur'ān is a Syriac text, is the easiest to refute on linguistic evidence. Nothing in the Qur'ān is Syriac, even the Syriac borrowed terms are Arabic, in so far as they now Arabized and used inside an Arabic linguistic medium. Luxenberg is pushing the etymological fallacy to its natural conclusion. The Qur'ān not only is borrowing words according to Luxenberg, it is speaking a gibberish language. "[7]

Patricia Crone, professor of Islamic history at the Institute for Advanced Study, Princeton, refers to Luxenberg's work as "open to so many scholarly objections" and "notably amateurism".[23]
Reply

Justufy
03-23-2010, 01:34 AM
I find Luxenberg's theories to be really far fetched, and so do many academics.
Luxemberg has proceeded rigoursly however, and if he remains a controversial figure among islamic circles his theories have been established using rigorous methods.

I dont think its so hard to think that mabey the qur'ân may be the result of a collective work. After all, the author of the revelation Zayd Ibn Tabet attended the jewish school of Medina and knew armaic, syriac and hebrew.
Reply

awais
03-23-2010, 01:46 AM
I don't understand you last message, I'm guessing you mean if the dots that distinguish one Arabic letter from another were removed from Surah Al-Kauthar it could be read as similar to 1 Peter 5:8-9?

What is your native tongue btw?
Reply

Justufy
03-23-2010, 01:51 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by awais
I don't understand you last message, I'm guessing you mean if the dots that distinguish one Arabic letter from another were removed from Surah Al-Kauthar it could be read as similar to 1 Peter 5:8-9?

What is your native tongue btw?
Thats exactly what I mean.

(Im French, so bare with me :hiding:)
Reply

awais
03-23-2010, 01:52 AM
It's important to note that his work isn't just criticised by muslims, but also heavily by other non-muslim secular scholars.
Reply

Justufy
03-23-2010, 01:58 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by awais
It's important to note that his work isn't just criticised by muslims, but also heavily by other non-muslim secular scholars.
I think that equal ground can be reached with the level of critism his work has suffered and the level of acceptancy. I think the safest thing to say here is that he is controversial.
Reply

marwen
03-23-2010, 02:08 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Justufy

As an example the word qur'ân itself is not of Arab origin but of syrian origin,

âya (that means sign or verses) comes from hebrew, surâ probably comes from Syrian also and mus'haf ( codex or exemplary of the qur'ân) comes from Ethiopian, so my question is the following, why is there such an apparent diversity of the origins of terms in the qur'ân?
I'm affraid that's not correct. The qur'an is written totally in arabic words which have roots in the arabic language used by arabs thousands of years before the qur'an. Now, about the words you mentioned :

1° the word qur'an (قرآن), it's an arabic word derived from the arabic verb qara'a(قرأ ) = to read. Qur'an means the action of reading or the object that we are reading (i.e the book).

2° the word âya ( آية) : this is an arabic word meaning : a clue. it is used in arabic to refer any thingthat demonstrates the existence of Allah and the veracity of the message of prophets : like miracles, arguments, and is used also to refer the quranic verses, which are arguments of the existence of God and of the sincerity of his messenger.

3° the word sura (سورة) : it's derived from the word 'sûr' (سور), which means : a wall, or a separation. As there must be separation between the qur'an chapters (سورة), i.e sura = a named set of verses grouped as a chapter.

4° the word mushaf (مصحف) is derived from the word 'sahifa' (صحيفة),
a 'sahifa' is a paper containing a text. and a mushaf is a group of 'sahifa'(s)
i.e mushaf = a book.

As we have seen, these words are arabic. I don't know about the other languages you mentioned, you must know that the qur'an is sent to an arabic community and it's made in their language which is the arabic, so why will it contain non-arabic words (if so, they will not understand the message)
Reply

Justufy
03-23-2010, 02:17 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by marwen
I'm affraid that's not correct. The qur'an is written totally in arabic words which have roots in the arabic language used by arabs thousands of years before the qur'an. Now, about the words you mentioned :

1° the word qur'an (قرآن), it's an arabic word derived from the arabic verb qara'a(قرأ ) = to read. Qur'an means the action of reading or the object that we are reading (i.e the book).

2° the word âya ( آية) : this is an arabic word meaning : a clue. it is used in arabic to refer any thingthat demonstrates the existence of Allah and the veracity of the message of prophets : like miracles, arguments, and is used also to refer the quranic verses, which are arguments of the existence of God and of the sincerity of his messenger.

3° the word sura (سورة) : it's derived from the word 'sûr' (سور), which means : a wall, or a separation. As there must be separation between the qur'an chapters (سورة), i.e sura = a named set of verses grouped as a chapter.

4° the word mushaf (مصحف) is derived from the word 'sahifa' (صحيفة),
a 'sahifa' is a paper containing a text. and a mushaf is a group of 'sahifa'(s)
i.e mushaf = a book.

As we have seen, these words are arabic. I don't know about the other languages you mentioned, you must know that the qur'an is sent to an arabic community and it's made in their language which is the arabic, so why will it contain non-arabic words (if so, they will not understand the message)
I would of tought that qur'an was of siriac origin meaning queryana which means lectionnairy in syriac.
Reply

awais
03-23-2010, 02:21 AM
Syriac and Aramaic are the same thing. Of course Aramaic, Hebrew, and Ethiopian are all semetic languages, so they will share similarities like the Romance (Spanish, Italian, French, etc.) do with eachother. As-Salaam Alaykum, Shalom Elekhem, etc. etc.

Marwen, read my above post, and check out the link :D
Reply

Justufy
03-23-2010, 02:29 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by awais
Syriac and Aramaic are the same thing. Of course Aramaic, Hebrew, and Ethiopian are all semetic languages, so they will share similarities like the Romance (Spanish, Italian, French, etc.) do with eachother. As-Salaam Alaykum, Shalom Elekhem, etc. etc.

Marwen, read my above post, and check out the link :D
Thank you for the clarifications, much appreciated.

Im off to bed now, big day tomorow.
Reply

Ibn Abi Ahmed
03-23-2010, 02:30 AM
Please refer to the following excellent article by Yasir Qadhi on this issue:
Question:
It is an indisputable fact that the Qur’ān uses ‘foreign vocabulary’, that is to say, vocabulary that was adopted into the Arabic language of the Qur’ān as loanwords derived from Aramaic, Syriac, Ethiopian, Hebrew, Greek, and other languages, but already understood in the Meccan and Medinan environment of Muhammad’s time. Many of these loanwords are taken from their liturgical usage in the Jewish-Christian tradition. It is equally indisputable that the Qur’ān includes many passages that have their parallels in biblical or extra-biblical narratives. How do you critically assess these phenomena of the Qur’ān in view of the claim that the Qur’ān is divine revelation, word for word?

Answer:
Due to the multi-layered question, this response will be divided into three parts.1

1. The Issue of Foreign Words

The controversy regarding the presence of foreign words in the Qur’ān is an ancient one, and although modern scholarship can claim that this fact is indisputable, it was certainly not so in the eyes of some early Muslims.

The famous Andalusian exegete, Muhammad b. Ahmad al-Qurtubī (d. 671/1272), summarized the controversy in the introduction to his Tafsīr. He stated that the scholars of Islam have unanimously agreed that there are no non-Arabic sentences or phrases in the Qur’ān, and they have also agreed that there are non-Arabic proper names such as ‘Jesus’ (‘Īsā), Gabriel (Jibrīl) and ‘Noah’ (Nūh). However, they differed into two groups regarding the presence of solitary foreign words in the Qur’ān.2

The controversy, of course, pre-dates al-Qurtubī by a few centuries. On the one hand were those who claimed that there were no foreign words in the Qur’ān, the most prominent amongst them being the jurist al-Shāfi’ī (d. 204/819), and also the exegete al-Tabarī (d. 310/922). They claimed that any word found in another language did not necessitate its origination in that language, for it could be the case that the other language took it from Arabic, or that both languages used those words simultaneously.3 The former, in his famous al-Risālah, has some harsh words for the followers of this opinion, and considered those who claimed that the Qur’ān has foreign words in it as being ignorant, bereft of wisdom and knowledge.4 Their concern, as they quite clearly delineate, was that the Qur’ān describes itself, in almost a dozen verses (e.g. Q. 16:103, 12:2, and 42:7) as being in pure Arabic, hence how could it be claimed that it contained foreign words? They also felt that, in accordance with the Qur’ānic principle that all prophets are sent speaking their native tongues, an Arab prophet would have to speak in Arabic to them. A third reason why such great consternation was felt, as the grammarian Ibn Fāris (d. 395/1004) stated, was due to the fact that if there were non-Arabic words in it, it would be unfair to challenge the Arabs to produce a work similar to it, as the Qur’ān does.5

It is poignant to note that there does not seem to be any indication in the writings of these early and even medieval scholars that admitting the existence of foreign vocabulary in the Qur’ān might somehow challenge its claim of Divine origin or expose it to allegations of ‘foreign’ influence. Rather, for them, it was a matter of reconciling specific verses that they presumed contradicted the assertion that foreign words existed in it.

On the other hand, quite a few early authorities seemed to have no problem acknowledging the foreign vocabulary of the Qur’ān. In particular the Companion Ibn ‘Abbās has much narrated from him in this regard (whether it can be deemed authentic or not is another question). The prolific al-Suyūtī (d. 911/1505) wrote the largest work of its kind in Arabic, entitled al-Muhadhab fī ma waqa’a fī al-Qur’ān min al-mu’arrab, in which he compiled around five dozen such examples. For al-Suyūtī, the few examples of non–Arabic words found in the Qur’ān did not negate its overall Arabic nature, hence there was no conflict with this and the verses describing it as being an Arabic revelation.

A third group of scholars tried to reconcile the two positions by claiming that there was an element of truth in both of them. The early linguist Abū ‘Ubayd al-Qāsim b. Sallām (d. 224/838) is the first that I know of who claimed that both of these groups were correct; he stated that the origin of some Qur’ānic words is indeed foreign, but they were introduced into Arabic, as is the case with any language, and were Arabicised by replacing their letters with Arabic letters, and eventually were incorporated into Arabic poetry and culture, such that for all practical purposes they could be considered Arabic.6 Al-Zarkashī (d. 794/1391), whose work al-Burhān fī ‘Ulūm al-Qur’ān is almost universally acknowledged as the greatest mediaeval work on the sciences of the Qur’ān, also leaned towards this position, as did al-Suyūtī in his other work, al-Itqān fī ‘Ulūm al-Qur’ān. Some proponents of this camp quoted the ‘father’ of Arabic grammar, Sībawayh (d. 180/796) himself, who wrote in his al-Kitāb that non-Arabic words could become Arabic if one substituted Arabic letters for the foreign ones, and then appended it to a known morphological form (wazn).7 The exegete Ibn ‘Atiyyah (d. 541/1147), in his al-Muharrar summarized his position regarding this issue when he stated that there is no doubt that Arabs interacted with other civilizations, through trade and other journeys, and in the process they took some of their words and introduced them into the common vernacular of the Arabs, such that they began to be used in their lectures and poetry, and this was the state of affairs when the Qur’ān was revealed with these words. It is this third opinion which is now almost universally acknowledge as valid by Muslim specialists in the field, and all the modern works that are written in the field of ‘ulūm al-Qur’ān’ reflect this.

As a final point, the fact that words of non-Arab origin are undeniably found in pre-Islamic poetry (in particular, the ‘Seven Hanging Odes’) clearly shows that Arabs, like all cultures, took specific phrases from other languages and incorporated them into their own.

Mention must be made here of the seminal work on this field in Western scholarship, and that is Arthur Jeffery’s The Foreign Vocabulary of the Qur’ān (Brill, 2007). There is no doubt that this masterpiece of scholarship outshines anything else written on the subject, however, at the same time, it cannot be taken as the final authority on each and every word that it lists. Rather, it serves as an indispensable index to see which words might possibly qualify as being non-Arabic in origin. What sets Jefferey’s work head and shoulders above all other works is that he specifically links each alleged foreign word back to its original language, be it Aramaic, Syriac, Hebrew, Greek, or other.8

2. The Issue of Judaeo-Christian Influence on the Qur’ān

It is a given fundamental amongst non-Muslims, be they Christian, Jew, or secular, that Muhammad composed the Qur’ān from whatever sources were available to him, in particular Judaeo-Christian sources. And it is just as much a fundamental amongst Muslims (by definition!) that the Qur’ān was a revelation from God.

The earliest modern researcher who sought to methodologically prove this claim was Abraham Geiger, who published his Was had Mohammed aus dem Judenthem aufgenommen in 1833 (translated as Judaism and Islam). This was followed by a flood of writings on the topic, such as those of Wilhelm Rudolph, Tor Andrae, Richard Bell, and C. C. Torrey. In particular, the Scottish Orientalist William Muir (d. 1905) did much to lay the foundations of this viewpoint.

Muir maintained that the Prophet had obtained his knowledge of Judaism and Christianity via the followers of those religions who lived in the Hijaz, and who visited the ‘Ukādh fairs, as well as having learnt about them via his own journeys to Syria. Claims Muir, “We may be certain that Mahomet lost no opportunity of enquiring into the practices and tenets of the Syrian Christians or of conversing with the monks and clergy who fell in his way.” Muir laments that the Prophet was exposed to a distorted and faulty view of Christianity, for had he been given the correct understanding of the religion instead of ‘…the misnamed catholicism of the Empire,’ he would have instead converted to it rather than misleading others through a new faith.9

W. Montgomery Watt, taking the ideas of Muir a step further, claimed that one of the theses of his book Muhammad at Mecca is that the greatness of Islam is largely due to a fusion of some Arab elements with certain Judaeo-Christian conceptions. He also posits (p. 27), based upon Q. 16:103, that there was a ‘monotheist informant’ of the Prophet. For Watt, the Prophet intentionally launched a new monotheistic religion in order to avoid the political implications of adopting Judaism or Christianity (p. 38).

H. A. R. Gibb, in his Muhammadanism: A Historical Survey, puts forward another possibility concerning the sources of the Qur’ān. In view of the close commercial relation between Mecca and Yemen, he states, it would be natural to assume that some religious ideas were carried to Mecca with the caravans of spices and woven stuffs, and there are details of vocabulary in the Qur’ān which give color to this assumption.10 The Lebanese Philip K. Hitti wrote that the sources of the Qur’ān are unmistakably Christian, Jewish and Arab heathen, and that what Muhammad did was to Islamise, Arabicise and nationalize the material.11 Richard Bell, in his The Origin of Islam in its Christian Environment, opines that much of the Qur’ān is directly dependent on the Bible (p. 42), yet also admitted that there was no evidence of any seats of Christianity in the Hijāz, and especially in Mecca and Medina (p. 100). The more modern Kenneth Cragg, while conceding the Christian influence on the Qur’ān, opines: “The Biblical narratives reproduced in the Qur’ān differ considerably and suggest oral, not direct acquaintance. There is almost complete absence of what could be claimed as direct quotation from the Bible.”12

And the quotes go on and on. The New Catholic Encyclopedia states quite correctly, regarding the divine origins of the Qur’ān:13

Non-Moslem scholarship has taken a different view of the matter. It has nearly always held that the major influences on Mohammed must have been principally, but not exclusively, Jewish and Christian, and that those influences were colored by Mohammed’s own character and made over to conform to aspects and need of the pre-Islamic Arabian mind.

It later goes on to claim that it was highly likely that the Prophet had access to the Scriptures of Judaism and Christianity.

The connection between the foreign vocabulary of the Qur’ān and its alleged foreign sources is obvious, as the quotation from Gibb above hints at. Arthur Jefferey’s work, mentioned above as well, is a perfect illustration of this frame of mind. He states factually that “…it is plain that Muhammad drew his inspiration…from the great monotheistic religions which were pressing down into Arabia of his day.“14 Based on this premise, he then asserts that researching the foreign vocabulary of the Qur’ān will allow us to understand the influences and sources that Muhammad used to come up with his religion.15 Jefferey then proceeds to lay out how Muhammad might have had possible access to Ethiopic, Persian, Greek, Syrian, Hebrew, Nabataean and Indian sources, how he had ‘…close contact with the Syrian Church,’ how he attempted to purchase information from the Jews, was possibly taught Coptic legends from his slave-girl, and was inspired by the success and might of the Byzantine and Persian Empires to lead the Arabs to higher levels of civilization.16

3. The View From Within: Muslim Responses

For Muslims, such a view as expressed by Jefferey and others is inherently biased. Many of the earlier generation of Orientalists were quite staunch Christians who made no qualms about their religious views on Islam. For later scholars, who worked in a time when, even if such a bias existed, its admittance would be looked upon disapprovingly, the general paradigm from which academic research was (and is) undertaken is that of a secular one, where there is no God who communicates with man and who sends different prophets with the same message to different peoples. Of course, this paradigm is applied to the same standards by most modern researchers to all faiths, and not just Islam. To do otherwise would automatically constitute an unacceptable bias that modern academia would not allow. Thus, the ‘The Great Flood’ that is mentioned in the Bible (and the Qur’ān) is viewed as a universal myth that has its origins in a plethora of sources, such as the Hindu Puranas, Greek mythology, and even the Epic of Gilgamesh. The mythology of Christianity is seen as having been derived from previous parallels, some of which are indeed quite striking, such as the stories of the Egyptian Sun god Horus and the Hellenistic cult of Mithra.

Hence, some of the problems that religiously devout Muslim academics will have when dealing with such research into the origins of the Qur’ān are very similar to the problems that members of other faiths will have when dealing with their respective traditions.

But this is not the only line of defense that Muslim academics draw. They point out the social and intellectual milieu that the Prophet found himself in and ask whether the portrayal of him tallies with historical facts and realities. One cannot be blamed for getting the distinct impression that some Western authors attribute to Muhammad a type of encyclopedic knowledge that no one else of his time or era reputedly had, or could even come close to. The impression is given that either he knew or had access to a library that included Christian, Jewish, Zoroastrian, and ancient Arab beliefs, and was cognizant of many different languages and dialects, before ‘writing’ the Qur’ān. Yet, modern research has failed to show any significant center of Jewish or Christian learning in Arabia, or translation of the Holy Scriptures into Arabic. In fact, some specialists have shown that the first known translation of the Gospels into Arabic occurred in the third century after the hijra.17

Again, for Muslims, such claims seem to ignore simple historical realities of the time, some of which even the Qur’ān alludes to. Of them is that Muhammad was an illiterate man raised in an uneducated Bedouin society. Both Q. 10:16 and 29:48-9 remind listeners that the Prophet had spent an entire lifetime (i.e., forty years) in their midst, during which he showed absolutely no inclination for any sort of literary activity or flair for writing skills – had he done so, the Qur’ān explicitly states, there would indeed be a legitimate reason to be skeptical.

Another issue that must be kept in mind is that any ‘parallels’ found between Qur’ānic and Biblical stories or materials are seen as proving, rather than disproving, the Qur’ān’s claim that it, along with the previous revelations, are Divinely revealed. A number of verses (e.g., 12:3, 12:102 and 28:44-6) plainly link the mentioning of such stories as proof that these revelations are not from mortal sources, but from God, “…for neither you, nor your people, knew of them before this” (Q 11: 49). Believing Muslims point out that even at the revelation of this Meccan verse, there are no recorded instances of anyone challenging the veracity of this claim, and state, “Actually, I was aware of these particular stories before the revelation.” Hence, far from looking at such stories and any similarities between them and other literature as proof against his prophethood, believers take them to be proofs for his claims!18

The same applies for any theological or moral similarity between Islam and Judaism or Christianity, or even ancient Arab customs, for they are taken to be of the common rubric given to Moses, Jesus and Abraham respectively. Hence this type of ‘back-projecting’ of ideas is not as much of a problem for Muslims as it is, say, for Christians when confronted with clear parallels between Christian theology and pagan beliefs (since, for them, there should be no Divine connection between the pagan cult of Mithra and the image of Jesus Christ, for example). For Muslims, the continuity of theology between prophets is a clear Qur’ānic principle and a proof for prophethood (as in Q. 46:9). In fact, in more than one verse the Qur’ān quite explicitly and unabashedly states that God has given the same message to the previous prophets in their respective Scriptures. In Q. 21:105, the Qur’ān states that God had already written, in the Psalms, that the righteous shall inherit the Earth (‘anna al-arda yarithuhā ‘ibadiy al-sālihūn’). This is almost an exact parallel of Psalm 37:29 “The righteous shall inherit the land and dwell therein for ever.”19 Other verses also give quotations from Biblical Scripture (see, for example, Q. 49:29).

It is also interesting to note that while the classical works related to the sciences of the Qur’ān discussed a multitude of issues, and strove to ‘defend’ the purity of the Revelation by tackling, head on, the claims of those who opposed it, it is rare to find in their works, or even in the treatises that responded to Christian polemics against Islam, a detailed defense of the accusation that the Qur’ān is taken from Judaeo-Christian sources because of parallels between them. Again, this returns to the psychological frame of mind that Muslims have, in which they see such parallels as being an indication of the continuity of the same chain of prophets and the same message, revealed from the same God. In other words, such parallels are simply not as ‘troubling’ to them as they are to a secular, Christian or Jewish observer, since each of these three groups will explain such parallels from within his or her own paradigm.20

In conclusion, and on a personal note, I accept as a given that, as a believer in a particular faith, there are certain areas where academic scholarship and religious belief will simply have to agree to disagree. I find claims of neutrality and objectivity to be purely relative; secular researchers into any field of religion will have their biases (although they would probably not label them as being ‘biases’), believing adherents to one tradition will have other biases when they examine other faiths, and they will have yet another set of biases when they examine their own faith.

That does not mean that research in any religious field is doomed to be bound by one’s own religious views. Rather, it is precisely because of such alternate viewpoints that academics and researchers will continue to enrich and engage with one another and provide fertile ground for ideas to be tossed around and explored; eventually, some will germinate and be nurtured, while others will fail to take root. And even of those that are nurtured, the fruits produced by such ideas will always be sweet to some, and bitter to others.
From here:
http://muslimmatters.org/2008/05/21/...foreign-words/

And secondly, another brief article:
2. It should be noted that although the Qur'an has words of foreign origin in it, this does not detract from the purity of the language at all. Shaykh Muhammad Mohar Ali, a former Professor of the History of Islam at Madinah Islamic University, discusses such issues in detail in one of his recent works:
Ever since the middle of the nineteenth century orientalists have turned their attention to what they consider "foreign words" in the Qur'an. They indeed take their cue from the writings of the Muslim classical scholars and exegetes themselves who, in their eagerness for meticulous studies of all aspects of the Qur'an, paid attention also to the words and expressions in it that were adopted and naturalized in the Arabic language of words and expressions of non-Arabic origin.
...Al-Suyuti and others before him emphasize three important facts in this connection. First, Arabic, Ethiopic, Syriac and Aramaic are cognate languages and have a good number of words in common because of their common roots. Second, in the course of the Arabs' long contact with the outside world, especially in the course of their trade and commerce, a number of words of non-Arabic origin entered the language and were naturalized, these being considered part and parcel of the Arabic language. Third, in the course of such adoption and naturalization the forms as well as the original meanings of the words underwent some modifications and changes.
These facts are common in respect to all languages. So far as Arabic is concerned, however, the first mentioned fact may be a little more elaborated. Arabic, Aramaic, Syriac and Hebrew are all Semitic languages and all had the same origin... The later Arabic language developed out of this original Arabic-Aramaic language. It is because of this fact that all the above mentioned languages have a number of words and expressions in common, though their senses and connotations have undergone changes due to the influences of time and locality. At the time the Qur'an came down, a number of words of these cognate languages as well as languages of the neigbouring peoples had been naturalized in the Arabic language and were regarded as part and parcel of the standard and literary Arabic (al-'arabiy al-mubin). The occurrence of such words and expressions in the Qur'an is thus quite natural because it was sent down in the language of its immediate audience, the Arabs.
...The Qur'anic ayah (16:103)...very strongly rebuts the same allegation of instruction by some person made by the Makkan unbelievers and points out that the language of the individual hinted at was "foreign" ('a'jami), i.e. not Arabic. ...The literary Arabic of the time was very developed and expressive; and a passage of the Qur'an which does not contain any of the alleged "foreign" words is as much a masterpiece of composition as any other passage. (M. M. Ali, The Qur'an and The Orientalists, Jam'iyat 'Ihyaa' Minhaaj Al-Sunnah 2004, pp. 305-306, 308, emphasis added)
In his above discussion on foreign words in the Qur'an, Shaykh M. Mohar Ali makes several important points. First, he points out that it is a characteristic of languages that they borrow extensively, and even entirely, from previous dialects, yet this in no way detracts from the purity of the language. He states that the foreign words become "part and parcel" of the language, which maintains the status of arabeeyin mubeen. He also points out that all these foreign words had already been accepted as part of the arabic language prior to Qur'anic revelation. In fact, Shaykh Mohar Ali continues by discussing the research on foreign words by Arthur Jeffery:
In fact Jeffery's researches go to show that the words he identifies as of foreign origin had actually been naturalized and become regular Arabic words before they came to be used in the Qur'an. He lists some 275 such words other than proper names. "About three quarters of the words in this list", as Watt points out, "can be shown to have been in use in Arabic before the time of Muhammad, ... Of the remaining 70 or so, though there is no written evidence of their earlier use, it may well be true that they were already employed in speech..." (fn. Watt, bell's Introduction etc., op. cit., p. 85). And in view of the fact that Arabic, Syriac, Ethiopic, Hebrew or Jewish Aramaic are cognate Semitic languages having common origin in the original Arabic-Aramaic mentioned above, they have many words in common and also similar forms. It is thus difficult in many cases to say which of such common words is derived from which of these languages. (M. M. Ali, The Qur'an and The Orientalists, Jam'iyat 'Ihyaa' Minhaaj Al-Sunnah 2004, p. 313)
Thus, these "foreign" words had already been integrated into the arabic language and were accepted as part of pure literary arabic. This notion is expressed accurately by Moiz Amjad as follows:
it is not the lack of words borrowed from other languages that makes good and pure literature, but the clarity and the purity of the dialect. In fact, words of foreign-origin, when adopted by the literati of a language, become a part of that language. The Qur'an, in the referred verse has indeed stressed the clarity and the purity of the dialect to refute the allegation of the rejecters that a non-Arab has forged the Qur'an. Nevertheless, the fact that some of the words of the Qur'an are of a foreign-origin does not refute the purity of the Qur'anic Arabic, unless it is proven that such words had not already been adopted by the Arabs in there speech and/or literature.

Obviously, the clarity and the style of the language of "Julius Caesar" is a clear evidence of the fact that its writer has a classical English background. The mere fact that 'Caesar' is a word of Roman (?) origin does not make Shakespeare any less an English writer. In fact, if any one criticizes Shakespeare for not using 'emperor' or 'ruler' (or any other pure English synonym for 'Caesar') in place of 'Caesar', to make it pure English, such a person not only has no sense of literature but is not even aware of the fact that the word 'Caesar' was used in the English language not merely to imply 'ruler' or 'emperor', but as a title for the Roman emperors.

Exactly in the same manner, any one who thinks that the Qur'an has used any foreign words actually is mistaken by the fact that some of the words in the Qur'an have a foreign-origin. Nevertheless, the Qur'an has used only such foreign-origin words, which had not only been introduced in the Arabic language but were also commonly used by the Arabs. Thus, it should be kept in mind that it is not the origin of words used by a literature, that effects the purity or otherwise of that literature. On the contrary, it is whether such words of foreign-origin have been adopted in the language or not. If such words have generally been adopted as a part of the language, usage of such words would not affect the purity of the language or the dialect. (SOURCE)
In light of the above explanation, it should be clear that the Qur'an is still considered pure arabic inspite of the fact that Arabic borrows, as all languages do, extensivley from previous dialects and languages.
In conclusion, there is no contradiction in verse 16:103 as it points towards the fact that the Qur'an is clear and eloquent arabic speech that cannot be mistaken for any other language. The Qur'an is clear in its source, its wordings, its laws and its commands.
From here: http://load-islam.com/artical_det.ph...orious%20Quran
Reply

marwen
03-23-2010, 02:55 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by awais
Syriac and Aramaic are the same thing. Of course Aramaic, Hebrew, and Ethiopian are all semetic languages, so they will share similarities like the Romance (Spanish, Italian, French, etc.) do with eachother. As-Salaam Alaykum, Shalom Elekhem, etc. etc.

Marwen, read my above post, and check out the link :D
Yes, that's right brother. All this Luxemberg theory is false, and it's just invented to attack the qur'an as a divine book, and to convince people that it's written manually by someone influenced by christianity who extracted knowledge from the prevoius books (the holy Bible, ...). But that's totally incorrect because the qur'an contains many true things (I mean recently proved) that didn't exist in the previous books, And also Allah said in the qur'an that it's written in arabic words, here are the âyats :
[ Surah 26 - Al Shu'ara'
026.192 Verily this is a Revelation from the Lord of the Worlds:
026.193 With it came down the spirit of Faith and Truth-
026.194 To thy heart and mind, that thou mayest admonish.
026.195 In the perspicuous Arabic tongue.
]

I mean if someone created the qur'an, and he said it's totally written in arabic words, than he will not certainly use non-arabic words in it, that will be illogical.

And brother Justufy : believe me, your english is at least better than mine ;D
Reply

Hey there! Looks like you're enjoying the discussion, but you're not signed up for an account.

When you create an account, you can participate in the discussions and share your thoughts. You also get notifications, here and via email, whenever new posts are made. And you can like posts and make new friends.
Sign Up
British Wholesales - Certified Wholesale Linen & Towels | Holiday in the Maldives

IslamicBoard

Experience a richer experience on our mobile app!