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glo
01-08-2011, 11:50 PM
Can somebody explain to me what the significance of the 40th day after a funeral is, and why and how it is commemorated in Islam?

Thank you.

(Mods, I am not sure where best to put this thread. Please move if necessary)
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glo
01-09-2011, 11:58 AM
Thank you for approving this thread.
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Endymion
01-09-2011, 12:50 PM
I think you should post this thread in "Clarification about Islam" section :statisfie and i have no problem where you post your threads :D

Talking about your question,i dont think there is something like that in Islam.Its a regional practice.Mourn for your loved ones like your Parents/siblings and others only allowed for 3 days while for husband it is for 4 months and ten days.

I found this for you :)

Weeping and Mourning over the Dead

Muslim scholars agree that weeping for the dead is permissible, whereas crying out loud and wailing are not. The Prophet (s.a.w) said: "The one who is wailed for is tortured on account of it." Abu Musa is reported to have said: "I declare my disavowal of all that Allah's Messenger disavowed. The Messenger of Allah disavowed publicly a woman who mourns loudly, one who shaves her head, and the one who tears her clothes in mourning." It is permissible for a woman to mourn for a period of three days over the death of a near relative. The Islamic term for mourning is Hidaad. Mourning for more than three days is not permitted except in the case of her husband's death. The Messenger of Allah (s.a.w) said: "It is not permissible for a woman who believes in Allah and the Last Day to mourn over a dead person more than three days, except for her husband, where she mourns for four months and ten days." A women whose husband has must observe what is known as the 'Iddah - The waiting period before she may remarry, which is four month and ten days. During this period a widow is not permitted to use any adornment, such as jewelry, kohl (eye-makeup), silk, perfume, or henna dye on her hands and feet. A widow during her 'iddah is permitted to leave her home to fulfill her economic and social needs. If for example she works to sustain her family, she may continue to leave her home daily for the period of work. Apart from leaving the house for necessities and social visits to relatives and friends, a widow during her 'iddah should pass the night in her own home until her term lapses, that is, she is not to sleep outside of her house.
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Insaanah
01-09-2011, 01:30 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by glo
Can somebody explain to me what the significance of the 40th day after a funeral is,
None whatsoever.

format_quote Originally Posted by glo
and why and how it is commemorated in Islam?
It isn't.

Any Muslims that do commemorate the 40th day after death, are doing something not sanctioned by Islam, and most probably following the custom of Hindu culture.

Bidaa'h (innovation) of gathering after fourty days to pray for the deceased

Question: In the indo Pak bangladesh subcontinent, there is something in the culture where if any Muslim dies then after 40 days we observe a day of supplication and rememberance of that person. My father recently died ( XXXX) so I would like to know the islamic ruling on these kind of observences?

Answer

Praise be to Allaah.

What happens in some Muslim countries – where the friends and relatives of the deceased gather after 40 days to read Qur’aan, make du’aa’ for him and remember him – is undoubtedly bid’ah (reprehensible innovation) for which no authority has been revealed by Allaah. It is not permissible to take part in or attend such gatherings...The Muslim should pray for his brother at all times, not only for three days after his death, or forty days or one year later, etc. It should be known that this is a custom of the Kuffaar and it is not permissible for us to imitate them. May Allaah help us to follow the Sunnah, and may He bless our Prophet Muhammad.

Islam Q&A
Sheikh Muhammed Salih Al-Munajjid

Extracted from Source: http://islamqa.com/en/ref/5871

Peace.
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nature
01-09-2011, 02:31 PM
This is widespread in asian communities. I actually used to do this, although i had no idea why, it was sumthin i was bought up knowing, but ive broken away from it now, although others seem less convinced. Its custom to do something on the 4th, 15th and then either 35th or 40th day, but as others have sed it is nothing to do with islam.
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'Abd Al-Maajid
01-09-2011, 02:51 PM
Also to add to this, a party is thrown when a baby is 40 days old. This is also bid'ah but if someone could explain it's origin to me...i'd be very grateful. This is very common in asian countries.
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nature
01-09-2011, 02:55 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by abdulmājid
Also to add to this, a party is thrown when a baby is 40 days old. This is also bid'ah but if someone could explain this to me...i'd be very grateful. This is very common in asian countries.

I went to an aqeeqah party recently for a newborn ? i had no idea what it was, or whether this is permissable. I suppose the 40 day thing, wud be cos women only go out after 40 days of giving birth ? again i think this is cultural ?
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'Abd Al-Maajid
01-09-2011, 02:57 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by
I went to an aqeeqah party recently for a newborn ? i had no idea what it was, or whether this is permissable. I suppose the 40 day thing, wud be cos women only go out after 40 days of giving birth ? again i think this is cultural ?
uh-huh, aqeeqah is different, aqeeqah is done on the 7th day of the birth. I am talking about the 40th day party.
Aqeeqah is Sunnah, Chilla is bid'ah :D


This is my 1988th post. :D
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nature
01-09-2011, 03:11 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by abdulmājid
uh-huh, aqeeqah is different, aqeeqah is done on the 7th day of the birth. I am talking about the 40th day party. Aqeeqah is Sunnah, Chilla is bid'ah

oh ok ? i didnt know, it kinda defeated the object of having one, considering it was a mixed environment, and no point to the whole thing. whats chilla ? Im not aware of the 40th thing ? as a pakistani, i thort we did all the biddah things, not this one though.
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'Abd Al-Maajid
01-09-2011, 03:16 PM
According to one explanation it's origin is based on the fact that after delivery the post-natal thing occurs for about 6 weeks i.e 40 days.+o(

I am not sure though, a highly experienced bid'ahti/innovator can answer this. :D
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Ramadhan
01-09-2011, 03:24 PM
My mother actually has told us the children that she does NOT want us to hold a 7th-day or 40th-day "tahlilan" for her when she dies. It is very common here in Indonesia, but it is definitely a serious bid'ah and has its roots from hindu tradition.
"tahlilan" is usually held during the first 7 days after a person died, the 40th and the 1000th day. Relatives and neighbours are invited to gather at the deceased's house to recite Yaa Sin (QS. Yaa Sin), make du'as and read some dhikrs and eat from the specially prepared food by the family.
In many cases, a lot of money are spent to hold these '"tahlilan" because the family usually are also expected to print little books containing yaa sin and collections of "mustahhab" du'as.

My mother told us to just read the Qur'an ourselves and continuously make du'as for her and be the best muslims, because that would actually help her in the hereafter: du'as from own, pious children.
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glo
01-09-2011, 06:44 PM
Thank you all for your contributions.

I came across this custom today in my local Pakistani Muslim community. They commemorated the death of a young member of the community 40 days after his funeral:
We will be meeting at 2pm tomorrow (sunday 9th) put down fresh flowers and remember A on the fourtieth day after the funeral, which is an important date for Muslim communities.
That's why I asked the question here.

I think naidamar's description is pretty close. It seems to have been a time of reflection, prayer and remembrance.
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via
05-20-2017, 01:31 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by glo
Can somebody explain to me what the significance of the 40th day after a funeral is, and why and how it is commemorated in Islam?

Thank you.

(Mods, I am not sure where best to put this thread. Please move if necessary)
I actually follow this rule, I was brought up doing so. I can't say for sure but I think it has to do with Arba'een (forty) being a significant number in Islam, Shias commemorate 40 days after the day of Ashura which when Imam Husayn(pbuh) was killed. Following this example, we also mourn for 40 days after the death of a loved one.

Also, a famous saying from Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) states that 'On the day of judgement, among my people, God will consider whoever memorised forty Hadiths as an erudite man.'
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noraina
05-20-2017, 08:44 PM
Assalamu alaykum,

I've read many times this doesn't have any place in Islam - it is based in Indian customs which have become mixed up with Islam.

I've heard for relatives generally the mourning period is 3 days, and for a woman whose husband has died it is four months and 10 days. Is this right?
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AbdurRahman.
05-22-2017, 04:42 PM
its always good to keep an open mind and expand upon one's knowledge, as long as it's from a reliable ahlus sunnah Scholar

i feared shirk a great deal for the Berelvi Hanafi's and would have regarded this '40 day' thing as bidah, however, not anymore:

... the point of mentioning these six questions is that not one of them is a genuine ‘aqida issue, in the sense of being a central tenet of faith that no one can disagree about and remain a believer. rather, all of the main‘aqida -related issues the barelwis and deobandis disagree about can be legitimately debated and differed upon by muslims without either side having left islam.

as previously noted, this applies with even greater force to fiqh issues differed upon by barelwis and deobandis, such as milad celebrations of the birthday of the prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace), the definition of bid‘a or “reprehensible innovation,” or the practice of setting aside particular days to send the reward of spiritual works to the souls of the departed. imam ghazali, ibn al-qayyim, ibn qudama al-maqdisi, and other scholars have noted that things whose blameworthiness imams of fiqh disagree about are not permissible to condemn, since it is a condition for something to be considered munkar or “condemnable” that this be concurred upon by all, not merely established through ijtihad of one scholar rather than another.

https://www.scribd.com/document/174576574/Iman-Kufr-And-Takfir-by-Nuh-Keller
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