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View Full Version : Jesus never said 'I am God', but a guy who isn't Jesus, did say it in Gen 31:10-13!



logs22
02-25-2011, 07:16 PM
Over 2 years ago, Muslims challenged Christians saying "Jesus never said 'I am God' ", and Christians haven't been able to argue against that ever since... but both Muslims and Christians have somehow overlooked another guy in the bible, who is not Jesus - a hidden Son of God who did say "I am God" in Genesis 31:10-13.

The youtube video by Youneekk called "The Return Of Horus The Crucified" shows what we Muslims and Christians have both overlooked!

Genesis 31:10-13,

“In breeding season I once had a dream in which I looked up and saw that the male goats mating with the flock were streaked, speckled or spotted. The angel of God said to me in the dream, ‘Jacob.’ I answered, ‘Here I am.’ And he said, ‘Look up and see that all the male goats mating with the flock are streaked, speckled or spotted, for I have seen all that Laban has been doing to you. I am the God of Bethel, where you anointed a pillar and where you made a vow to me. Now leave this land at once and go back to your native land.’”



Like the youtube video says "that beats everything Jesus ever said!" How did everyone miss this? Discuss.
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Hiroshi
03-01-2011, 10:25 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by logs22
Over 2 years ago, Muslims challenged Christians saying "Jesus never said 'I am God' ", and Christians haven't been able to argue against that ever since... but both Muslims and Christians have somehow overlooked another guy in the bible, who is not Jesus - a hidden Son of God who did say "I am God" in Genesis 31:10-13.

The youtube video by Youneekk called "The Return Of Horus The Crucified" shows what we Muslims and Christians have both overlooked!

Genesis 31:10-13,

“In breeding season I once had a dream in which I looked up and saw that the male goats mating with the flock were streaked, speckled or spotted. The angel of God said to me in the dream, ‘Jacob.’ I answered, ‘Here I am.’ And he said, ‘Look up and see that all the male goats mating with the flock are streaked, speckled or spotted, for I have seen all that Laban has been doing to you. I am the God of Bethel, where you anointed a pillar and where you made a vow to me. Now leave this land at once and go back to your native land.’”



Like the youtube video says "that beats everything Jesus ever said!" How did everyone miss this? Discuss.
I share your belief that Jesus is not Almighty God and never claimed to be.

But concerning the passage that you quote here I would point out that in the Bible God often speaks by means of angels that carry God's message to his servants. And many times the angels convey the exact words of God as they are God himself speaking. For example, God's angel appears to Moses in a burning bush in Exodus 3:2. But when the angel speaks he says to Moses in Exodus 3:6 "I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham ... etc."
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Amat Allah
03-01-2011, 11:52 AM
Bismellah Tawakkalna ala Allah wa laa hawla wa laa qowata ill beIllah

format_quote Originally Posted by Hiroshi
God often speaks by means of angels that carry God's message to his servants. And many times the angels convey the exact words of God as they are God himself speaking.

That is true but what you have mentioned above when you said:

format_quote Originally Posted by Hiroshi
For example, God's angel appears to Moses in a burning bush in Exodus 3:2. But when the angel speaks he says to Moses in Exodus 3:6 "I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham ... etc."


Is not with all my respect; that wasn`t an Angel (peace be upon them all) that was Allah Al Mighty speaking my respected brother...

"Then, when Musa (Moses) had fulfilled the term, and was travelling with his family, he saw a fire in the direction of Tur (Mount). He said to his family: "Wait, I have seen a fire; perhaps I may bring to you from there some information, or a burning fire-brand that you may warm yourselves." (29) So when he reached it (the fire), he was called from the right side of the valley, in the blessed place from the tree: "O Musa (Moses)! Verily! I am Allah, the Lord of the 'Alamin (mankind, jinns and all that exists)! (30)" Surat Al Qasas

"And mention in the Book (this Quran) Musa (Moses). Verily! He was chosen and he was a Messenger (and) a Prophet. (51)And We called him from the right side of the Mount, and made him draw near to Us for a talk with him [Musa (Moses)]. (52)" Surat Mar`yam

"And Messengers We have mentioned to you before, and Messengers We have not mentioned to you, - and to Musa (Moses) Allah spoke directly. (164)" Surat Annisaa

"Those Messengers! We preferred some to others; to some of them Allah spoke (directly); others He raised to degrees (of honour); and to 'Iesa (Jesus), the son of Maryam (Mary), We gave clear proofs and evidences, and supported him with Ruh-ul-Qudus [Jibrael (Gabriel)]. If Allah had willed, succeeding generations would not have fought against each other, after clear Verses of Allah had come to them, but they differed - some of them believed and others disbelieved. If Allah had willed, they would not have fought against one another, but Allah does what He likes. (253)" Surat Al Baqarah
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Sol Invictus
03-01-2011, 02:43 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Hiroshi
I share your belief that Jesus is not Almighty God and never claimed to be.

But concerning the passage that you quote here I would point out that in the Bible God often speaks by means of angels that carry God's message to his servants. ( a ) And many times the angels convey the exact words of God as they are God himself speaking. For example, God's angel appears to Moses in a burning bush in Exodus 3:2. But when the angel speaks he says to Moses in Exodus 3:6 "I am the God of your father, the God of Abraham ... etc."
( a ) that is patently false. the only individual who speaks in this manner is the one called the angel of the lord and no other angel ever speaks as such. not only that, but numerous times in the old testament is this individual attested to as god by individuals in scripture.
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SalamChristian
03-02-2011, 04:50 PM
Salaam Alaikum,

As a Christian, I feel obligated to clarify a few things about my religion:

Jesus (pbuh) is not Allah (swt). He is one with God. In the same verse where he says this, Jesus (pbuh) says "My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. I and the Father are one.” It is very important to note here that the word our Gospel records Jesus (pbuh) uses to say "I and the Father are one" is "en," which is the root of both the word "one" and "unity," "unified," and "unison." Essentially, what Jesus is saying is that by submitting completely to Allah's (swt) will, he is one with God.
-
Jesus (pbuh) also says "Salam Alaikum; my peace I give to you; I do not give it to you as the world does. Do not let your hearts be distressed or lacking in courage. You heard me say to you, "I am going away and I am coming back to you." If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am." (John 14:27-28)

We do not pray to Jesus (pbuh). We pray to Allah (swt), and Allah (swt) alone. Jesus (pbuh) taught us how to pray. He said:

"Pray like this. Our father, who is in heaven, holy be your name . . . for yours is the kingdom, the power, and the glory, forever and ever, Amen."

Many of us do, however, often finish prayers "in Jesus name." We do this to bring glory to Jesus (pbuh), because he is the Messiah, and all people of the world must be unified under him at the Second Coming in order to slay the anti-christ.

Salaam,
Bob
Reply

Grace Seeker
03-02-2011, 09:56 PM
Bob, I must respectfully disagree with you. Many Christians do indeed pray to Jesus. Likewise some of us also pray to the Holy Spirit. We do this because we do not believe that we are doing any different by praying to them than when we pray to the Father.

As with regard to your understanding of the Greek term "en" in John 10:30, I share the commentary provided by Merrill Tenney on the passage:
"Iand the Father" preserves the separate individuality of the two Persons in the Godhead, the neuter pronoune "one" (hen) asserts unity of nature of equality (cf. 1 Corinthians 3:8). The Jews were quick to apprehend this statement and reacted by preparing to stone Jesus for blasphemy because he, as man, had asserted that he was one with God. For them Jesus' language did not mean simply agreement of thought or purpose but carried a metaphysical implication of diety. The Father and Son functioned as one.
In classical Greek, the term en "refers to the ultimate unity of being, eternity, that which has not become, the non-transient, underived." (Source: The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Colin Brown, ed.) If Jesus is using this term in anything even remotely having this understanding, it is no wonder that the Jews saw his statement as blasphemy. He wasn't just talking about submitting his will to another and in that sense being one as in coming to agreement with the same purpose and being sort of figuratively one, but rather Jesus was asserting an ontological truth that the very nature of his being and that of the Father were one and the same. And it is on that very basis that those of us Christians who pray to Jesus understand that we are praying to the Father as well and, for that matter, vice-versa.
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SalamChristian
03-03-2011, 03:07 AM
Peace Grace Seeker,

While we disagree, I am glad that we can do it civilly. I am saddened that I am not yet a full member, because I would like to send you a private message to establish fellowship.

To those who are observing our discussion, let me provide a link to a popular Christian website addressing the issue of praying only to Allah (swt). It is true that not all Christians agree on this subject. Indeed, Catholics pray even to holy men. I, however, restrict myself to only pray to Allah (swt) and not to Jesus (pbuh), but rather to end my prayers with "in Jesus name" to bring glory to the Messiah, because that is what I and many other Christians, though not all, teach:

bible-knowledge . com /pray-to-god-the-father-in-the-name-of-jesus/

Again, I had to split up this link, because (as I am new) I am technically not allowed to post links, for fear I might post something inappropriate. However, as you can see this is not an inappropriate links, and I am faithfully respecting IslamicBoard's content rules.

I hope this may also show our Muslim brothers and sisters that not all Christians are the same. The criticisms you may level against some Christians almost never apply to all Christians. And again, all faiths have diversity within them, so to expect us to agree on every issue would be a very high expectation.

To Sol:

my reading is that the two nouns have two unique referents. The Granville Sharp "rule" isn't so sharp as people claim. Specifically, this refers to the scriptural truth that both are coming (see Revelations).

Salaam Alaikum,
Bob
Reply

Hiroshi
03-03-2011, 01:15 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by SalamChristian
Salaam Alaikum,

As a Christian, I feel obligated to clarify a few things about my religion:

Jesus (pbuh) is not Allah (swt). He is one with God. In the same verse where he says this, Jesus (pbuh) says "My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. I and the Father are one.” It is very important to note here that the word our Gospel records Jesus (pbuh) uses to say "I and the Father are one" is "en," which is the root of both the word "one" and "unity," "unified," and "unison." Essentially, what Jesus is saying is that by submitting completely to Allah's (swt) will, he is one with God.
-
Jesus (pbuh) also says "Salam Alaikum; my peace I give to you; I do not give it to you as the world does. Do not let your hearts be distressed or lacking in courage. You heard me say to you, "I am going away and I am coming back to you." If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am." (John 14:27-28)

We do not pray to Jesus (pbuh). We pray to Allah (swt), and Allah (swt) alone. Jesus (pbuh) taught us how to pray. He said:

"Pray like this. Our father, who is in heaven, holy be your name . . . for yours is the kingdom, the power, and the glory, forever and ever, Amen."

Many of us do, however, often finish prayers "in Jesus name." We do this to bring glory to Jesus (pbuh), because he is the Messiah, and all people of the world must be unified under him at the Second Coming in order to slay the anti-christ.

Salaam,
Bob
I believe that everything you say here is correct and well researched.
Reply

Hiroshi
03-03-2011, 01:47 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Sol Invictus
( a ) that is patently false. the only individual who speaks in this manner is the one called the angel of the lord and no other angel ever speaks as such. not only that, but numerous times in the old testament is this individual attested to as god by individuals in scripture.
How about the three that appeared to Abraham at Mamre, two of whom went down to Lot in Sodom? Notice how Lot addresses them and how they speak in reply in Genesis 19:18-22.
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Hiroshi
03-03-2011, 02:04 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Amat Allah
Bismellah Tawakkalna ala Allah wa laa hawla wa laa qowata ill beIllah


That is true but what you have mentioned above when you said:


Is not with all my respect; that wasn`t an Angel (peace be upon them all) that was Allah Al Mighty speaking my respected brother...

"Then, when Musa (Moses) had fulfilled the term, and was travelling with his family, he saw a fire in the direction of Tur (Mount). He said to his family: "Wait, I have seen a fire; perhaps I may bring to you from there some information, or a burning fire-brand that you may warm yourselves." (29) So when he reached it (the fire), he was called from the right side of the valley, in the blessed place from the tree: "O Musa (Moses)! Verily! I am Allah, the Lord of the 'Alamin (mankind, jinns and all that exists)! (30)" Surat Al Qasas

"And mention in the Book (this Quran) Musa (Moses). Verily! He was chosen and he was a Messenger (and) a Prophet. (51)And We called him from the right side of the Mount, and made him draw near to Us for a talk with him [Musa (Moses)]. (52)" Surat Mar`yam

"And Messengers We have mentioned to you before, and Messengers We have not mentioned to you, - and to Musa (Moses) Allah spoke directly. (164)" Surat Annisaa

"Those Messengers! We preferred some to others; to some of them Allah spoke (directly); others He raised to degrees (of honour); and to 'Iesa (Jesus), the son of Maryam (Mary), We gave clear proofs and evidences, and supported him with Ruh-ul-Qudus [Jibrael (Gabriel)]. If Allah had willed, succeeding generations would not have fought against each other, after clear Verses of Allah had come to them, but they differed - some of them believed and others disbelieved. If Allah had willed, they would not have fought against one another, but Allah does what He likes. (253)" Surat Al Baqarah
Thank you Amat Allah. Perhaps the Qur'an and the Bible disagree slightly on this point. But in the Bible numerous times a representative is spoken of as if he is the one being represented (compare Matthew 8:5-10 with Luke 7:2-9 and Matthew 20:20-21 with Mark 10:35-37).
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SalamChristian
03-03-2011, 04:05 PM
Hiroshi,

I am glad that we are in agreement on the relationship of Jesus (pbuh) to Allah (swt) the father. :~)

I actually think there may be possibility both the Qu'ran and the Bible are right on this subject. God speaks more directly to Moses than to anyone else. An entire 15 chapters are devoted to the build-up where Moses and the Israelites must continually purify themselves more and more so that the Lord can more fully visit Moses (Exo 19:10-12; 21-22; 19). However, as to whether this means God was face-to-face with Moses, I am doubtful. As Exodus says, "the glory of the Lord resided on Mount Sinai, and the cloud covered it for six days. On the Seventh day the Lord called to Moses from within the cloud." (Exodus 24:16). I interpret it this way: there was no representative for God this time, but he was not seeing Moses face-to-face. Instead, because Moses was not purified enough to be near God and he would die if he saw God face-to-face, God revealed himself indirectly in his reflected image on the mountain-top. Also, his voice was probably muted by the cloud, but that is debatable.

Interestingly, Moses seems to be disfigured by his talk with God. In the 1980s, Marvin Pope was the first to argue this point. Exodus says that after his talk with God, "the skin of his face shone; and they were afraid to approach him." (Exo 34:1). The word translated as "shone" here means "horns," and Pope among others read this to mean that his face was leathery or growing boils or something.

Salaam,
Bob
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gmcbroom
03-03-2011, 10:29 PM
John 14:9 Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. That passage equates the 2 doesn't it?
Peace be with you
gmcbroom
Reply

Hiroshi
03-04-2011, 10:33 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by SalamChristian
Hiroshi,

I am glad that we are in agreement on the relationship of Jesus (pbuh) to Allah (swt) the father. :~)

I actually think there may be possibility both the Qu'ran and the Bible are right on this subject. God speaks more directly to Moses than to anyone else. An entire 15 chapters are devoted to the build-up where Moses and the Israelites must continually purify themselves more and more so that the Lord can more fully visit Moses (Exo 19:10-12; 21-22; 19). However, as to whether this means God was face-to-face with Moses, I am doubtful. As Exodus says, "the glory of the Lord resided on Mount Sinai, and the cloud covered it for six days. On the Seventh day the Lord called to Moses from within the cloud." (Exodus 24:16). I interpret it this way: there was no representative for God this time, but he was not seeing Moses face-to-face. Instead, because Moses was not purified enough to be near God and he would die if he saw God face-to-face, God revealed himself indirectly in his reflected image on the mountain-top. Also, his voice was probably muted by the cloud, but that is debatable.

Interestingly, Moses seems to be disfigured by his talk with God. In the 1980s, Marvin Pope was the first to argue this point. Exodus says that after his talk with God, "the skin of his face shone; and they were afraid to approach him." (Exo 34:1). The word translated as "shone" here means "horns," and Pope among others read this to mean that his face was leathery or growing boils or something.

Salaam,
Bob
Most certainly the language used to describe Moses' encounter on Mount Sinai could lead someone to suppose that he was literally face to face with God. But there is also Acts 7:38 to consider. There we are told that it was an angel that spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai.
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Hiroshi
03-04-2011, 10:38 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by gmcbroom
John 14:9 Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. That passage equates the 2 doesn't it?
Peace be with you
gmcbroom
Well, these words of Jesus could not be meant in a literal sense because (a) no man has seen the Father (John 1:18) and (b) Jesus isn't the Father. Jesus is actually the Son.

So Jesus' words would have to be understood in a non-literal sense to mean that Jesus was manifesting the Father's qualities and personality.
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gmcbroom
03-04-2011, 08:52 PM
Hiroshi,
I think this is one of those areas where Trinitarians and Unitarians differ. They are one in the same as God isn't divided or ascribed partners. You have to remember The Father is God, The Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. There is only one God.
Peace be with you
gmcbroom
Reply

3rddec
03-05-2011, 12:20 AM
It is intresting how many people say that Jesus never said specifically I am God , but those that believe this can show you tons of places where he clearly Implies it. Lets turn it around and ask where does Jesus say specifically I am not God, and not a passage that implies it. He hard plenty of opportunities as it was because the Jews believing from what he was saying and doing that he was claiming to be God that the had him arrested and tried for what to them was the height of blasphemy.
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marwen
03-05-2011, 12:39 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by
Lets turn it around and ask where does Jesus say specifically I am not God
this also will not help too much. For example, I can ask you to give one single post in this forum where I said "I'm not a god !". Probably you won't find any. Does it mean I'm a god ?
Reply

Hiroshi
03-05-2011, 07:29 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by 3rddec

It is intresting how many people say that Jesus never said specifically I am God , but those that believe this can show you tons of places where he clearly Implies it. Lets turn it around and ask where does Jesus say specifically I am not God
How about Jesus' objection in Luke 18:19 "Why do you call me good? Nobody is good except one, God."
Reply

3rddec
03-05-2011, 02:49 PM
the point im making is that asking a christian to prove that Christ is God by asking the question where does Christ specifically say he is God proves nothing when the christian's valid response is say where he specifically say he is not God. Accept you have your answer. As far as the above quote goes a non christian would say look he is saying clearly he is not God where a Christian would say no he is not. He is challenging the person to come to a conclusion as to whether he is God. The person in question if you read further did not answer as to accept Christ as God he would have to give up all his possessions. He went away. Jesus uses this challenging technique a lot as he did with peter when he asks peter and the other apostles Who do you say I am. We have a free will and we can look at everything Christ did and said with the gift of the Holy Spirit answer honestly the question he still asks of everyone, "Who do you think I am ?" if you do not believe he is God or if you have attached yourself to another God just as this man was attached to his wealth even though he thought he was being religious as he did all his religious duties ( after all why did he come to ask the question unless he felt Christ was special enough to ask) , you are free to walk away too. Im sure he went back to his previous life of riches and religious practice and convinced himself with all sorts of well thought out answers that this Christ who was working all these miracles wasn't worth following.

There are none so blind as those who will not see

love and respect
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SalamChristian
03-05-2011, 04:39 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by marwen

this also will not help too much. For example, I can ask you to give one single post in this forum where I said "I'm not a god !". Probably you won't find any. Does it mean I'm a god ?
Agreed.

Salam Alaikum
Reply

SalamChristian
03-05-2011, 05:32 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by gmcbroom
John 14:9 Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. That passage equates the 2 doesn't it?
Peace be with you
gmcbroom
"Equates" "Equal" "Equivalent"--Here is the problem with using those words. Jesus says numerous times, as I have already quoted in this thread "The father is greater than I am." Now, I'm not a mathematician, but I am an economics grad and I believe algebra tells us that:

Father > son AND,
Father = son CANNOT BOTH BE TRUE.

If you believe in Sola Scriptura and the divinity of our Bible, you've got to drop the "equal" claim, or else you are stuck denying clear statements made by Jesus (pbuh).

format_quote Originally Posted by gmcbroom
Hiroshi,
I think this is one of those areas where Trinitarians and Unitarians differ. They are one in the same as God isn't divided or ascribed partners. You have to remember The Father is God, The Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God. There is only one God.
Peace be with you
gmcbroom
I'm not sure your labels are correct. From what I understand (and correct me if I'm wrong, because I might be), you don't have a monopoly to the label "trinitarian." The claim that the Father and Son are "co-equal" was not original to the doctrine of the Trinity. Tertullian, who coined the term, taught that God (swt) was "He who subjected" and Jesus (pbuh) was "He to whom he [Christ] was subjected" (Ad Praxean, 35). The term "subject" is meant in a monarchical sense, likening God (swt) to the King and Jesus (pbuh) to a prince-regent who temporarily ruled, before handing over the kingdom to God. The idea that the two are "co-equal" was therefore refuted by the man who coined the term "trinity," but was added later by Athanasius. Thus, you are an "athanasian trinitarian." Those who believe in the subordination of the son to the father, however, but believe the three are one, "not in number, but in unity of substance" have a right to claim the title of trinitarian if they so choose. Indeed, they may have more of a right than you do.

Lastly, any claim that Jesus (pbuh) literally meant that he was the image of God must be refuted by the looooong biblical tradition that God (swt) cannot be seen. Even to see God indirectly Moses had to purify himself for months and months, and still he was disfigured by it. Indeed, in this claim Jesus is responding to the skepticism that was inherent in Philip and Man in general--that disbelievers always say they want to see the Father before they will believe, but it is not possible until after the Second Coming and Millennial reign to see God directly.

Salaam Alaikum
Reply

3rddec
03-05-2011, 05:57 PM
I do not consider myself a scholar and will not even attempt to reply to to everything Salaam's discussion re Trinity, but as a maths teacher I would point out that at infinity strange things happen and there is infinately small and infinately big. Some scientists say the universe was once infinately small but the same universe is infinately big but it is the same universe. But to be honest i'm just posting this for amusement.

Also I didnt post to prove or disprove the Trinity but rather to deal with the Question does Christ say he is God or not in the bible prove anything.

and to point out that just because a questioner doesnt accept the answer doesn't mean they haven't been answered.

love and respect
Reply

SalamChristian
03-05-2011, 06:58 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by 3rddec
Also I didnt post to prove or disprove the Trinity but rather to deal with the Question does Christ say he is God or not in the bible prove anything.

and to point out that just because a questioner doesnt accept the answer doesn't mean they haven't been answered.
love and respect to you as well, 3rddec. :~)

The question of whether Jesus (pbuh) says he is God (swt) necessarily requires us to understand what such a statement mechanically involves: what the language implies. Does this mean Jesus (pbuh) = God (swt), or Jesus (pbuh) is of the same substance as as God (swt) [in other words, Jesus < Father)?

This is the language issue that I am responding to. When someone claims Jesus (pbuh) says he is God, the language used to make that statement means to the typical person that Jesus (pbuh) = God (swt). That is why we should avoid using this language. Clearly, the statement cannot mean Jesus (pbuh) = God (swt), because Jesus says so often that Father > Jesus (pbuh). Thus, at best you can argue God = Father + Jesus + Holy Spirit, but even that disproves the claim Jesus (pbuh) = God, because you are missing the Father and the Holy Spirit. So, we obviously need to stop using this language.

Salaam Alaikum
Reply

Grace Seeker
03-07-2011, 08:24 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by SalamChristian
"Equates" "Equal" "Equivalent"--Here is the problem with using those words. Jesus says numerous times, as I have already quoted in this thread "The father is greater than I am." Now, I'm not a mathematician, but I am an economics grad and I believe algebra tells us that:

Father > son AND,
Father = son CANNOT BOTH BE TRUE.

If you believe in Sola Scriptura and the divinity of our Bible, you've got to drop the "equal" claim, or else you are stuck denying clear statements made by Jesus (pbuh).

I too am an economics grad AND have a masters in divinity. Your objection is duly noted that both statements cannot be true when we are speaking mathematically. But we aren't. So, your symbols don't represent the essence of the statements that I believe the Bible makes with regard to the relationship between the Father and the Son. What the Bible presents are these statements:

"You heard me say, ‘I am going away and I am coming back to you.’ If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I." (John 14:28)

"My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. I and the Father are one.” (John 10:29-30)


Note that neither of these passages specify in what manner that the Father is greater. Is it in position? authority? state of being? But whatever it is, it does not prevent Jesus from also saying that he and the Father are one. And it does no good to argue that Jesus only means something like one in purpose, for that does not fit with the Greek grammar that was employed by John in writing the passage (linked to another place where the Father is said to be greater), and it does not fit with the response of the Jews who sought to kill him for claiming to be God by such a statement. (Something they have no reason to do if Jesus just meant one in purpose with God's purposes.)

There are some things that Jesus claims that he shares with the Father, and one of them is the Father's glory: "And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began." (John 17:5). This not only speaks of Jesus' glorification, but that he had it BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN.

As far as equality with God, that is in scripture:
Philippians 2


5 In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
7 rather, he made himself nothing
by taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
by becoming obedient to death—
even death on a cross! 9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.
The pre-incarnate Christ had it, he just didn't grasp it, but in coming to earth emptied himself of it in order to live as a man and in his incarnation possessed our nature. But that didn't mean the other was no longer true of him, only that he did not exercise his divine nature while on earth. Still, one has to take seriously the final exaltation that is described, especially when it is read in light of Isaiah 45.

Isaiah 45 was understood by the 1st century Jew as a passage with spoke of the oneness and the sovereignty of God. In it is repeated the idea “I am the LORD, and there is no other; apart from me there is no God" (Isaiah 45:5, see also vs. 6, 14, 18, 21, & 22). Of God and God alone, the Holy One of Israel, is it to be true "Before me every knee will bow; by me every tongue will swear" (Isaiah 45:23).

Such things are not said lightly, for God himself declares: “I am the LORD; that is my name! I will not yield my glory to another or my praise to idols" (Isaiah 42:8). Yet, here we see that God has given Jesus this name (LORD) that is his own name and is above every other, and he has indeed shared his glory with Jesus.

Now, since Philippians was written by Paul, and there are a lot of Paul-haters here, I expect to here how this is Paul once again corrupting the truth. But it isn't just Paul, in fact, consider what else is included in the passage that Paul quotes from:

Isaiah 42

5 This is what God the LORD says—
the Creator of the heavens, who stretches them out,
who spreads out the earth with all that springs from it,
who gives breath to its people,
and life to those who walk on it:
6 “I, the LORD, have called you in righteousness;
I will take hold of your hand.
I will keep you and will make you
to be a covenant for the people
and a light for the Gentiles,
7 to open eyes that are blind,
to free captives from prison
and to release from the dungeon those who sit in darkness.
8 “I am the LORD; that is my name!
I will not yield my glory to another
or my praise to idols.
9 See, the former things have taken place,
and new things I declare;
before they spring into being
I announce them to you.”
So it is God, the creator, who is announces in this passage what he will one day do. And when do we hear of these things next occuring? On the very lips of Jesus. And I don't mean just when he read from scroll of Isaiah and pronounced that the prophecy had been fulfilled in the hearing of those there that day, though that should be enough to see what it was that Jesus was claiming. But consider his response to John the Baptist's question:
Luke 7

20 When the men came to Jesus, they said, “John the Baptist sent us to you to ask, ‘Are you the one who is to come, or should we expect someone else?’”
21 At that very time Jesus cured many who had diseases, sicknesses and evil spirits, and gave sight to many who were blind. 22 So he replied to the messengers, “Go back and report to John what you have seen and heard: The blind receive sight, the lame walk, those who have leprosy are cleansed, the deaf hear, the dead are raised, and the good news is proclaimed to the poor. 23 Blessed is anyone who does not stumble on account of me.”


format_quote Originally Posted by SalamChristian
Lastly, any claim that Jesus (pbuh) literally meant that he was the image of God must be refuted by the looooong biblical tradition that God (swt) cannot be seen. Even to see God indirectly Moses had to purify himself for months and months, and still he was disfigured by it. Indeed, in this claim Jesus is responding to the skepticism that was inherent in Philip and Man in general--that disbelievers always say they want to see the Father before they will believe, but it is not possible until after the Second Coming and Millennial reign to see God directly.

Salaam Alaikum
What do you mean by literal? What do you mean by image?

The scriptures record that mankind was made in the image of God. Is that to be understood to be literally true or something else? Well, I suggest to you that it is indeed to be understood as literally true, but not physically true.

I believe that we are created spiritually in the image of God, because the Bible says that we are created in God's image. But I don't believe it refers to a physical image as though created in God's image, God created us physically both male and female. If we were to be a physical rendering of the image of God, then we would all have the same physical image. So, I either reject the text as false, or consider the posibility that the text remains true, but that I need to understand it in some way other than a physical image. When we later learn that God is spirit, and realizing that God breathed life into us, we can see that perhaps the image of God that we possess is not a physical image but a spiritual one. This also makes sense out of the Biblical injunction not to make any graven image of God, for the highest form of any image of God is that which God himself created, humanity. We are to bear that image of God into the world. (Though it wasn't long before we messed that up.) But, I believe that the principle ministry of Jesus among us, was to reconcile humanity to God so that we could once again be his image bearers: "just as we have borne the image of the earthly man, so shall we bear the image of the heavenly man [i.e., Jesus]" (1 Corinthians 15:47). Christ is himself the image of God (2 Corinthians 4:4), and we who are in Christ can expect to "put on the new self, which is being renewed in knowledge in the image of its Creator" (Colossians 3:10).
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3rddec
03-07-2011, 07:34 PM
I wasnt seriously using the maths in the discussion lol it was l little side issue.

Love and Respect
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Grace Seeker
03-09-2011, 04:14 AM
Many like to dispute that Jesus was ever worshipped by the disciples or the early church. Now there are multiple places that give evidence of Jesus being worshipped in the Gospels (Matthew 2:11, 14:33, 28:9; Luke 24:52; John 9:38, and John 20:28), but those who resist this idea like to claim that these are little more than acts of obescience, not actual worship.


So, let us turn to the early church as recorded in the book of acts. Here too we find Jesus being worshipped. In particular I am interested in how those who do not believe the early church worshipped Jesus understand Acts 13:2 "While they were worshiping the Lord and fasting, the Holy Spirit said, 'Set apart for me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have called them'.”? Already the term "Lord" has been applied to Jesus, and clearly this is not obescience since Jesus is not physically present. So, to what does this passage refer when it says of the church in Antioch, "they were worshipping the Lord"?
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SalamChristian
03-10-2011, 05:52 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Grace Seeker
In particular I am interested in how those who do not believe the early church worshipped Jesus understand Acts 13:2 "While they were worshiping the Lord and fasting, the Holy Spirit said, 'Set apart for me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have called them'.”? Already the term "Lord" has been applied to Jesus, and clearly this is not obescience since Jesus is not physically present. So, to what does this passage refer when it says of the church in Antioch, "they were worshipping the Lord"?
Secondly, the word Lord is historically the name of the Father, and also is given to the son. Now, I'm not concluding this doesn't refer to the son, but on what basis are you making that conclusion? Could it not also refer to the Father?

The word you translate as "worshiping" should not be translated and used in the way you are translating and using it. The greek word, "leitourgeó," referred originally to serving in a public office of the state. The word distinctly refers to serving in a general sense, as opposed to simply bowing or prostrating yourself. It means doing the will of your King/master--carrying out his will through work. There is nothing wrong with applying this word to Christ, because Christ is to become the ruler of this earth for 1000 years, before he hands the kingdom over to God the father and subjects himself to the Father.

Salaam,
Bob
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Hiroshi
03-12-2011, 12:06 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Grace Seeker
Many like to dispute that Jesus was ever worshipped by the disciples or the early church. Now there are multiple places that give evidence of Jesus being worshipped in the Gospels (Matthew 2:11, 14:33, 28:9; Luke 24:52; John 9:38, and John 20:28), but those who resist this idea like to claim that these are little more than acts of obescience, not actual worship.


So, let us turn to the early church as recorded in the book of acts. Here too we find Jesus being worshipped. In particular I am interested in how those who do not believe the early church worshipped Jesus understand Acts 13:2 "While they were worshiping the Lord and fasting, the Holy Spirit said, 'Set apart for me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have called them'.”? Already the term "Lord" has been applied to Jesus, and clearly this is not obescience since Jesus is not physically present. So, to what does this passage refer when it says of the church in Antioch, "they were worshipping the Lord"?
In the Greek Septuagint the word "Lord" is used as an equivalent for the Hebrew name of God: Jehovah. And the same is true in the New Testament. For example Luke 4:18-19 quotes Isaiah 61:1-2 and reads: "Lord" in Greek where the name "Jehovah" appears in the Hebrew. So while the NT frequently uses "Lord" to refer to the Lord Jesus, it also uses the word to represent Jehovah.

Now I have two different translations of the NT into Hebrew and they both read "Jehovah" for "Lord" at Acts 13:2. I know also that there are many other such translations that do the same. The general view of this verse therefore seems to be that it is referring to God the Father rather than Jesus.
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SalamChristian
03-20-2011, 05:53 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Hiroshi
Most certainly the language used to describe Moses' encounter on Mount Sinai could lead someone to suppose that he was literally face to face with God. But there is also Acts 7:38 to consider. There we are told that it was an angel that spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai.
Good point. Doesn't Moses speak with God multiple times?

format_quote Originally Posted by Amat Allah
Is not with all my respect; that wasn`t an Angel (peace be upon them all) that was Allah Al Mighty speaking my respected brother... "And Messengers We have mentioned to you before, and Messengers We have not mentioned to you, - and to Musa (Moses) Allah spoke directly. (164)" Surat Annisaa"
Good point. But is this verse not also in the Qu'ran?

Shakir:
"And when Musa came at Our appointed time and his Lord spoke to him, he said: My Lord! Show me (Thyself), so that I may look upon Thee. He said: You cannot (bear to) see Me but look at the mountain, if it remains firm in its place, then you will see Me; but when his Lord manifested His glory to the mountain he made it crumble and Musa fell down into a swoon" Sura Al-Araf, 143.

So maybe, once again, the disagreement is not in our scriptures, but in our interpretations of them? And if a bush can be rightly considered "angelos," perhaps also a mountain could be considered "angelos," and would jive also with the description in Exodus? And perhaps the point when God talks directly to Moses is later, from within the Ark?

Well, whichever of us is right, let God be proven true and every man be proven false.

Peace
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Ramadhan
03-21-2011, 01:58 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by
Good point. But is this verse not also in the Qu'ran? Shakir: "And when Musa came at Our appointed time and his Lord spoke to him, he said: My Lord! Show me (Thyself), so that I may look upon Thee. He said: You cannot (bear to) see Me but look at the mountain, if it remains firm in its place, then you will see Me; but when his Lord manifested His glory to the mountain he made it crumble and Musa fell down into a swoon" Sura Al-Araf, 143.


God spoke directly to Musa (pbuh) meaning there was no angel intermediatery, and God spoke directly does not mean "face to face"

For example at this right moment, I am speaking with you directly, no messenger, via the internet medium.
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SalamChristian
03-21-2011, 02:35 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by naidamar
God spoke directly to Musa (pbuh) meaning there was no angel intermediatery, and God spoke directly does not mean "face to face"
I am not trying to prove the Qu'ran wrong. My point is simply that God speaks to Moses (pbuh) numerous times, and that if only one of those is directly, it fulfills the Qu'ran's verse. Also, I am pointing out that this verse of the Qu'ran corroborates with the story of Exodus in the Taurat, which describes this time as a continuous build-up until Moses is able to be in God's presence.

Salaam
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Amat Allah
03-22-2011, 05:15 AM
none of the prophets and messengers of Allah(peace and blessings of Allah be upon them all) saw Allah, never..and that never happened and won`t ever happen in this worldly life but it will be for those who will enter the Paradise ; Allah The Exalted will bless them with seeing His Al Mighty Face as a reward for being true slaves and servants of Allah Who Has no sons or relatives; The Only True God Who deserves to be worshipped alone with no partners or fales gods ....

format_quote Originally Posted by naidamar
My Lord! Show me (Thyself), so that I may look upon Thee. He said: You cannot (bear to) see Me
here when Moses (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) ask Allah to show him HimSelf; Allah said: you can not see me; cause Allah The One Who has the knowledge of everything and of the unseen knew that Moses won`t be able to bear seeing Him Al Mighty so, to make him believe ; Allah told him:" but look at the mountain, if it remains firm in its place, then you will see Me" then what happened?

the mountain which is stronger in its nature than Moses (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) couldn`t bear the manifestation of Allah so it is collapsed to dust; then how would Moses (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) bear it who the scene of the mountain turning to dust made him fell down unconscious?

the nature of our bodies in this worldy life is not prepared to bear Allah`s appearance but in the Hereafter; the nature of our bodies will be changed whether for who will enter Paradise or who will enter Hellfire...

and when the prophet Muhammad (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) had been asked:did you see Thy Lord?, he said: " I saw light" and in another narration:" He is a light; now could I see Him?".

and Mother of the believers; Aisha(May Allah be pleased with her) the wife of the prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him)said:" whoever said that Muhammad saw His Lord is lair".

and again none saw Allah in this worldy life and none will; no matter what...and Allah knows the best...
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gmcbroom
03-30-2011, 07:33 PM
Jesus didn't say it but the way he lived and miracles he did pointed right to him. He didn't
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gmcbroom
03-30-2011, 07:38 PM
Sorry using my cell phone and the scripting is way Off.
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