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truthseeker63
05-25-2012, 02:59 AM
Some Christians I talk to claim that the people in biblical times had to drink alcohol because water was too unclean to drink are they correct ? Did they have drinking water in the time of Prophet Muhammad peace/belessings be upon him in Arabia ? Did clean drinking water exist back then ?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Drinking_water
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BadOlPuttyTat
05-25-2012, 03:26 AM
In old Europe this happened but not in Bible times. In old England water was so unclean people joined the military to go to foreign countries were they had better food and drinking water. In the Bible times people drank liquor and nothing wrong with drinking alcohol but getting drunk is the issue. My mother drinks a Kosher wine called Manischewitz. It helps her low blood since wine (in small doses) is good for you. It's how the fat French can eat the most richest foods yet never die of a heart attack. My mom realized this when she worked for a lot of Frenchmen and foreigners. The French and Jews have it down right. The grape especially when fermented is VERY good for your blood. Especially when it has no sugars. A kosher wine/grape juice is called a Meshuval, Kedem a grape juice in America is kosher. It is just grape juice but has a wine after taste because its so pure. Arabs and especially Bedouin LONG SINCE mastered proper water. They were very good at it. They learned to find waters and were not barbarians like the English and didnt fling fecal matter into a stream. Europeans never realized feces would make water impure which goes against common logic even at that day of age :? . A lot of the wells in the middle-east today are just modernized old ones that have existed in centuries past I may add. Nothing has changed over there and it is why i love it ;D , Arabs, Kurds, Persians, Bedouins have my greatest admiration for their well preserved culture.
Christians make up excuses and some say that wine back then had no alcohol which is total non sense. Some century year old wines were found in Jerusalem back when I was 8 years old and YES they had 40% liquor in them! Enough to knock a cow out after a few cups. Only reason it was 45% is because the water.flavoring evaporated and caked up but even so a good 35% would have been left.
This answer your question?
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glo
05-25-2012, 08:38 AM
I believe in medieval Europe it was common to drink Ale, a weak beer.
Since the purity of water could seldom be guaranteed, alcoholic drinks were a popular choice, having been boiled as part of the brewing process. Beer also provided a considerable amount of the daily calories in the northern regions.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_beer
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BadOlPuttyTat
05-25-2012, 08:45 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by glo
I believe in medieval Europe it was common to drink Ale, a weak beer.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_beer
before i could even say it lol
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~ Sabr ~
05-25-2012, 08:48 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by truthseeker63
Did they have drinking water in the time of Prophet Muhammad peace/belessings be upon him in Arabia ? Did clean drinking water exist back then ?
:salamext:

They DEFINITELY had clean drinking water at those times. They had wells where they would obtain the water from.

Have you read the story of when the verse was revealed to forbid people from drinking alcohol? People that were Muslims, when the command came that alcohol was forbidden, their faith was so strong that some people had a drink in their hand-they threw it away, some had glasses raised to their lips and were sipping them, they spit the alcohol out, some people had already drank the alcohol, they started to make themselves vomit so haraam would not be in them.

This was the faith of the Muslims in those times.

And look at us, when someone tells us this is "haraam", we make up excuses!!!! Look at them and look at us, SubhaanAllaah.


P.S. This is my 1000th post :statisfie
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