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MadameCurie
06-18-2016, 02:09 PM
Assalamu aleykum,

I have got a questions concerning some quranic verses.

In Sura 9 verse 30 you can read:

The Jews say, "Ezra is the son of Allah "; and the Christians say, "The Messiah is the son of Allah ." That is their statement from their mouths; they imitate the saying of those who disbelieved [before them]. May Allah destroy them; how are they deluded?

Most of the Tafsirs of this verse say that not all jews are meant but just those who lived around Medina.
But why does Quran refer to all Jews if not all are meant?

Another example:

In Sura 42 verse 20 you can read

Whoever desires the harvest of the Hereafter - We increase for him in his harvest. And whoever desires the harvest of this world - We give him thereof, but there is not for him in the Hereafter any share.

And in the Tafsirs theres is add an "only". The Tafsirs say: "Whoever only desire the harvest of the Hereafter".

But why doesnt quran contain the word "only" in this verse and why is it allowed to add it in Tafsirs?


Thanks!

Salam

MadameCuri
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greenhill
06-18-2016, 02:35 PM
Welcome to the forum.

Interesting questions. There would be historical explanations for these verses. For the first instance, it is just to 'help' understand quicker.

The second, yes I would conquer with the ayat being for thr Jews around Medina.

You see, the arrival of the prophet, all prophets, so to speak would have been foretold and there were always people, of Jewish descent awaiting the arrival.

So, it goes that the same Jews would question the prophet (pbuh) and the answers would come in the form of the ayats. It answered precisely the question then.

Wishing you a great stay.


:peace:
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syed_z
06-19-2016, 12:57 PM
Originally Posted by MadameCurie
In Sura 9 verse 30 you can read:

The Jews say, "Ezra is the son of Allah "; and the Christians say, "The Messiah is the son of Allah ." That is their statement from their mouths; they imitate the saying of those who disbelieved [before them]. May Allah destroy them; how are they deluded?

Most of the Tafsirs of this verse say that not all jews are meant but just those who lived around Medina.
But why does Quran refer to all Jews if not all are meant?
Even though it is correct that in the first instance the verse was revealed to the Jews of the Madinah but it applies to all Jews. The reason for that is because Ezra (alaihi Salaam) rewrote the Torah which the Jews lost during Babylonian Captivity.

The belief among later generations that the The rewritten version is as authoritative as the word of God Himself (especially the Talmudists holding that belief) constitutes a type of Shirk (associating partners with God - an unforgivable sin) which is blasphemous and similar to assigning Sonship to God Al Mighty.

Therefore in this case the Quran is referring here to all Jews as the rewritten version they're holding on to till today is not the exact copy of the Law of Moses, which were Divine Words of God. The Jews assign quasi divine authority to Ezra as well as their Rabbis and that is why the next Verse says the following:

Surah 9 Verse 31

They have taken their scholars and monks as lords besides Allah , and [also] the Messiah, the son of Mary. And they were not commanded except to worship one God; there is no deity except Him. Exalted is He above whatever they associate with Him.


One of the Companions of Prophet Muhammad (sallAllahu Alaihi Wassallam) asked him that why Quran is saying that Jews worship their Scholars (Rabbis) while they don't do that. To which he replied that they follow their words as if they were revelations of God. By doing so they fall in to the sin of Shirk (associating partners with God.)

...Please elaborate on the 2nd question, I didn't understand that.
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MadameCurie
06-22-2016, 02:05 PM
Salam

Thanks for your replies!

@ Syed_z

Regarding the first questions.
So the jews in Medinah did not believe that Ezra was the son of god in the same way the christians believed that Jesus was the son of god?


Regarding the second question.

The quran says

"And whoever desires the harvest of this world..."

While the Tafsir says

And whoever only desires the harvest of this world..."

If you add an "only" as the Tafsir did, the meaning of the ayat changes, doesnt it?. Because without the word "only" it means that even if you desire the harvest of the hereafter as well as the harvest of this world, you will just get the harvest of this world.

Excuse me if i make some linguistic mistakes.
English is not my first language.Salam

MadameCurie
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syed_z
06-23-2016, 06:42 AM
Originally Posted by MadameCurie
Salam

Thanks for your replies!

@ Syed_z

Regarding the first questions.
So the jews in Medinah did not believe that Ezra was the son of god in the same way the christians believed that Jesus was the son of god?

Wa Alaikum Salaam Madamecurie,

All jews in general held Uzair (alaihi Salaam) in great reverence because he dictated the lost Torah to them. Some even went to the extent of assigning divinity to him like Christians do to Jesus (alaihi Salaam).

How many Madinah Jews assigned sonship to him? I am not sure. But there is no doubt that Quran's Verse 30 addresses in the first instance to Madinah Jews and then to all Jews (till the end of the world) is because of their taking the rewritten Torah to be the exact word of God which isn't true, its as wrong as assigning sonship to a Prophet of God. Its Shirk.

Also one of the reasons why it could be that some Jews assigned divinity to him like Christians did to Jesus (alaihi Salaam) is because of Uzayr (alaihi Salaam) had been put to sleep by Allah (swt) for over a 100 years and he was woken up and he returned to his people which was a great shock to them and a Miracle of Allah (swt)..

(2:259) ..and We will make you a sign for the people




Originally Posted by MadameCurie
Regarding the second question.

The quran says

"And whoever desires the harvest of this world..."

While the Tafsir says

And whoever only desires the harvest of this world..."

If you add an "only" as the Tafsir did, the meaning of the ayat changes, doesnt it?. Because without the word "only" it means that even if you desire the harvest of the hereafter as well as the harvest of this world, you will just get the harvest of this world.

Thanks. I like the translation of Muhammad Assad it explains well. Just a word of advise, try to understand the verses not in isolation, you won't be able to grasp their meaning. For example Surah 9 Verse 30 can be understood when Verse 31 is also understood.

Similarly Surah 42 Verse 20 should also be read in conjunction to the Verse 21.

Verse 20 says.... whereas to him who desires (but) a harvest in this world, We (may) give something thereof - but he will have no share in (the blessings of) the life to come.

....thats because Verse 21 says.... Is it that they (who care for no more than this world) believe in forces supposed to have a shared in God's divinity ...

They believe that wealth, luck, fame, power, social status are exclusive in determining their destiny in this world. They begin to loose sight of a higher power that influences all things in this world. Thats the reason why commentators used the word only I guess.



By the way what Tafsirs are you reading these days and what made you begin to ponder on the Quran? Are you a revert or a non-muslim? Just asking to understand you better.
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MadameCurie
06-23-2016, 08:34 AM
Salam,

Thank you for your reply!
I am a Muslim since birth, hamdellah.
I just want to expand my knowledge about the Quran al karim.
I read different tafsirs which i find in internet.

Salam
MadameCuri
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syed_z
06-26-2016, 08:12 PM
Wa alaikum Salaam...

MashaAllah may Allah (Swt) help you increase your knowledge. :)
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