Peace to you, Cooloonka:
I apologize for taking so long to respond. I didn't see your post until today.
format_quote Originally Posted by
cooloonka
again i am no expert but i'm going to try to explain things the way i was taught.
Christians believe the Bible is written in God's own words. we believe that God gave the message to certain people who were mere messengers. in that sense the Bible is considered true and good and holy.
Well the fact is, we know the entire bible is not the inspired word of God. How? I will give a couple of examples:
“But to the rest
speak I, not the Lord” (I Corinthians 7:12).
This is from Paul who clearly states these are
HIS words, not the words of God.
Luke 1:1-4 “Forasmuch as many have taken in hand to set forth in order a declaration of those things which are most surely believed among us, Even as they delivered them unto us, which from the beginning were eyewitnesses, and ministers of the word; It seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write unto thee in order, most excellent Theophilus, That thou mightest know the certainty of those things, wherein thou hast been instructed.”
Here, Luke tells us exactly why he wrote his gospel. Not once did he claim he was divinely inspired and actually says the opposite. He's saying he wrote because he felt he had the knowledge based solely on hearsay traditions and because of his status as a doctor he felt he could give a better account than those of a lower status, such as fishermen. This is also not the word of God, but the words of the author of Luke, (who is anonymous).
As you can see, the entire bible is not the 100% inspired word of God. Unfortunately, after centuries of additions, it is almost impossible to determine which is the word of God and which is the word of man.
therefore...
"Indeed, even though there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as in fact there are many gods and many lords—yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist (1 Cor 8:5-6)."
is one passage that clearly states Jesus' divinity. and when Lord is used in other passages it is another name for Jesus but the meaning is always the same. Lord=God=Jesus.
Actually, depending on which version of the bible you use, this verse has many translations. So, the most widely accepted and used version is the KJV and I will quote from it:
1 Corinthians 8:5-6 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
5For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
First, notice how it clearly says ONE God who created all things, including us. It then continues on and uses the word "AND" to say, there is also ONE Lord (Lord, also used by Sarah when referring to Abraham. It also means Master....a sign of status and respect...not divinity). ONE Lord who delivered the message of the ONE God. It does not say they are 2 in 1 being. It is very clear the verse is speaking of 2 completely separate entities. One being the creator the other being the teacher and messenger FOR the creator.
There is absolutely no basis or claim to divinity here. :)
Peace to you, and may Allah, swt, continue to guide you to truth. Ameen
Hana