Islam and the Bible

[Bennett Spies]

Surah 5:43 - 47
إِنَّآ أَنزَلْنَا ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةَ فِيهَا هُدًۭى وَنُورٌۭ ۚ يَحْكُمُ بِهَا ٱلنَّبِيُّونَ ٱلَّذِينَ أَسْلَمُوا۟ لِلَّذِينَ هَادُوا۟ وَٱلرَّبَّـٰنِيُّونَ وَٱلْأَحْبَارُ بِمَا ٱسْتُحْفِظُوا۟ مِن كِتَـٰبِ ٱللَّهِ وَكَانُوا۟ عَلَيْهِ شُهَدَآءَ ۚ فَلَا تَخْشَوُا۟ ٱلنَّاسَ وَٱخْشَوْنِ وَلَا تَشْتَرُوا۟ بِـَٔايَـٰتِى ثَمَنًۭا قَلِيلًۭا ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلْكَـٰفِرُونَ ٤٤ وَكَتَبْنَا عَلَيْهِمْ فِيهَآ أَنَّ ٱلنَّفْسَ بِٱلنَّفْسِ وَٱلْعَيْنَ بِٱلْعَيْنِ وَٱلْأَنفَ بِٱلْأَنفِ وَٱلْأُذُنَ بِٱلْأُذُنِ وَٱلسِّنَّ بِٱلسِّنِّ وَٱلْجُرُوحَ قِصَاصٌۭ ۚ فَمَن تَصَدَّقَ بِهِۦ فَهُوَ كَفَّارَةٌۭ لَّهُۥ ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلظَّـٰلِمُونَ ٤٥ وَقَفَّيْنَا عَلَىٰٓ ءَاثَـٰرِهِم بِعِيسَى ٱبْنِ مَرْيَمَ مُصَدِّقًۭا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهِ مِنَ ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةِ ۖ وَءَاتَيْنَـٰهُ ٱلْإِنجِيلَ فِيهِ هُدًۭى وَنُورٌۭ وَمُصَدِّقًۭا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهِ مِنَ ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةِ وَهُدًۭى وَمَوْعِظَةًۭ لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ ٤٦ وَلْيَحْكُمْ أَهْلُ ٱلْإِنجِيلِ بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فِيهِ ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلْفَـٰسِقُونَ ٤٧

In Surah 5:43 - 47, Allah asks Muhammad why the Jews and Christians keep coming to him for advice. Allah says that they (Jews and Christians) have the Torah and the Gospel. The Allah says that Christians have no ground to stand on unless they stand on the Gospel.

Here's the point: Muhammad says to the people of his day that they have the Torah and the Gospel, and that the Christians of his day must judge by what the Gospel says.
So, this means that the Jews and Christians in 600 AD had the scriptures, and ought to judge by them.

Today, we have found copies of the Torah, as well as the New Testament from before and during 600 AD. Meaning, we have copies of what Christians and Jews were reading during the time of Muhammad.
This means that we have the same scriptures which Muhammad told Christians and Jews to judge by.

These ancient copies of the Old and New Testaments are the foundation for the Bibles that are printed today. So, according to Muhammad, Christians today have the Gospel and the Torah, and we ought to judge by them.

So, we Christians are to judge by the Gospel. One problem... the Gospel clearly refutes what Muhammad says in the Quran. In the Gospel, Jesus is the incarnate Son of God, who was crucified and on the third day rose again. In the Gospel, Jesus is the final messenger of God (meaning that there are no prophets or scripture that will come) and we are only waiting His return.

The conclusion: Muhammad affirms the inspiration of the Torah and Gospel. Then, Muhammad tells the Christians in 600 AD that they are to judge by the Torah and Gospel. This implies that the Christians of 600 AD have the preserved Torah and Gospel. We have copies of both the Torah and the Gospel from even before 600 AD. However, the Gospel refutes many teachings in the Quran. Therefore, the Quran contradicts itself, and tells Christians to believe that Jesus is Lord, and that He rose from the dead.

Question: How can this dilemma be resolved with Quran verses to support your position?

[Ümit]

Surah 5:43 - 47
إِنَّآ أَنزَلْنَا ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةَ فِيهَا هُدًۭى وَنُورٌۭ ۚ يَحْكُمُ بِهَا ٱلنَّبِيُّونَ ٱلَّذِينَ أَسْلَمُوا۟ لِلَّذِينَ هَادُوا۟ وَٱلرَّبَّـٰنِيُّونَ وَٱلْأَحْبَارُ بِمَا ٱسْتُحْفِظُوا۟ مِن كِتَـٰبِ ٱللَّهِ وَكَانُوا۟ عَلَيْهِ شُهَدَآءَ ۚ فَلَا تَخْشَوُا۟ ٱلنَّاسَ وَٱخْشَوْنِ وَلَا تَشْتَرُوا۟ بِـَٔايَـٰتِى ثَمَنًۭا قَلِيلًۭا ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلْكَـٰفِرُونَ ٤٤ وَكَتَبْنَا عَلَيْهِمْ فِيهَآ أَنَّ ٱلنَّفْسَ بِٱلنَّفْسِ وَٱلْعَيْنَ بِٱلْعَيْنِ وَٱلْأَنفَ بِٱلْأَنفِ وَٱلْأُذُنَ بِٱلْأُذُنِ وَٱلسِّنَّ بِٱلسِّنِّ وَٱلْجُرُوحَ قِصَاصٌۭ ۚ فَمَن تَصَدَّقَ بِهِۦ فَهُوَ كَفَّارَةٌۭ لَّهُۥ ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلظَّـٰلِمُونَ ٤٥ وَقَفَّيْنَا عَلَىٰٓ ءَاثَـٰرِهِم بِعِيسَى ٱبْنِ مَرْيَمَ مُصَدِّقًۭا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهِ مِنَ ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةِ ۖ وَءَاتَيْنَـٰهُ ٱلْإِنجِيلَ فِيهِ هُدًۭى وَنُورٌۭ وَمُصَدِّقًۭا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهِ مِنَ ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةِ وَهُدًۭى وَمَوْعِظَةًۭ لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ ٤٦ وَلْيَحْكُمْ أَهْلُ ٱلْإِنجِيلِ بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فِيهِ ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلْفَـٰسِقُونَ ٤٧

In Surah 5:43 - 47, Allah asks Muhammad why the Jews and Christians keep coming to him for advice. Allah says that they (Jews and Christians) have the Torah and the Gospel. The Allah says that Christians have no ground to stand on unless they stand on the Gospel.

Here's the point: Muhammad says to the people of his day that they have the Torah and the Gospel, and that the Christians of his day must judge by what the Gospel says.
So, this means that the Jews and Christians in 600 AD had the scriptures, and ought to judge by them.

Today, we have found copies of the Torah, as well as the New Testament from before and during 600 AD. Meaning, we have copies of what Christians and Jews were reading during the time of Muhammad.
This means that we have the same scriptures which Muhammad told Christians and Jews to judge by.

These ancient copies of the Old and New Testaments are the foundation for the Bibles that are printed today. So, according to Muhammad, Christians today have the Gospel and the Torah, and we ought to judge by them.

So, we Christians are to judge by the Gospel. One problem... the Gospel clearly refutes what Muhammad says in the Quran. In the Gospel, Jesus is the incarnate Son of God, who was crucified and on the third day rose again. In the Gospel, Jesus is the final messenger of God (meaning that there are no prophets or scripture that will come) and we are only waiting His return.

The conclusion: Muhammad affirms the inspiration of the Torah and Gospel. Then, Muhammad tells the Christians in 600 AD that they are to judge by the Torah and Gospel. This implies that the Christians of 600 AD have the preserved Torah and Gospel. We have copies of both the Torah and the Gospel from even before 600 AD. However, the Gospel refutes many teachings in the Quran. Therefore, the Quran contradicts itself, and tells Christians to believe that Jesus is Lord, and that He rose from the dead.

Question: How can this dilemma be resolved with Quran verses to support your position?

There is no dilemma.
The Thorah and the Gospel were already altered at the time of the Prophet sas. (the Quran says this and the Quran has been revealed during this period)...but it is irrelevant, because a new book (the Quraan) has been revealed for the whole human kind and needs to be followed.

The Jews and the Christians obviously didn't do that, and kept following the old scriptures as their guide. But they knew that Muhammed sas was a fair, kind and just person.
So they judged usually by their own books, but everytime one of their own people needed to be judged, they suddenly came to the Prophet sas...because his judgements were less severe as their own.

The Prophet sas didn't like that, so he referred them back to their own scriptures. Whether he referred to the original unaltered scriptures or the altered ones during his time is not relevant, because:
1 if the scriptures were unaltered: the punishment would be similar or even more severe.
2 if the scriptures were altered: the Jews and Christians would not come to the Prophet for a less punishment of one of their own people.

Think about it:
you have your own book which you normally follow as a guide. it even has verses how you should punish someone for certain crimes...but dependent on who that committed the crime, you choose either to follow your own book, or you choose the rulings of the Quraan. isn't that twofaced?

[Ümit]

Surah 5:43 - 47
إِنَّآ أَنزَلْنَا ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةَ فِيهَا هُدًۭى وَنُورٌۭ ۚ يَحْكُمُ بِهَا ٱلنَّبِيُّونَ ٱلَّذِينَ أَسْلَمُوا۟ لِلَّذِينَ هَادُوا۟ وَٱلرَّبَّـٰنِيُّونَ وَٱلْأَحْبَارُ بِمَا ٱسْتُحْفِظُوا۟ مِن كِتَـٰبِ ٱللَّهِ وَكَانُوا۟ عَلَيْهِ شُهَدَآءَ ۚ فَلَا تَخْشَوُا۟ ٱلنَّاسَ وَٱخْشَوْنِ وَلَا تَشْتَرُوا۟ بِـَٔايَـٰتِى ثَمَنًۭا قَلِيلًۭا ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلْكَـٰفِرُونَ ٤٤ وَكَتَبْنَا عَلَيْهِمْ فِيهَآ أَنَّ ٱلنَّفْسَ بِٱلنَّفْسِ وَٱلْعَيْنَ بِٱلْعَيْنِ وَٱلْأَنفَ بِٱلْأَنفِ وَٱلْأُذُنَ بِٱلْأُذُنِ وَٱلسِّنَّ بِٱلسِّنِّ وَٱلْجُرُوحَ قِصَاصٌۭ ۚ فَمَن تَصَدَّقَ بِهِۦ فَهُوَ كَفَّارَةٌۭ لَّهُۥ ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلظَّـٰلِمُونَ ٤٥ وَقَفَّيْنَا عَلَىٰٓ ءَاثَـٰرِهِم بِعِيسَى ٱبْنِ مَرْيَمَ مُصَدِّقًۭا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهِ مِنَ ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةِ ۖ وَءَاتَيْنَـٰهُ ٱلْإِنجِيلَ فِيهِ هُدًۭى وَنُورٌۭ وَمُصَدِّقًۭا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهِ مِنَ ٱلتَّوْرَىٰةِ وَهُدًۭى وَمَوْعِظَةًۭ لِّلْمُتَّقِينَ ٤٦ وَلْيَحْكُمْ أَهْلُ ٱلْإِنجِيلِ بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فِيهِ ۚ وَمَن لَّمْ يَحْكُم بِمَآ أَنزَلَ ٱللَّهُ فَأُو۟لَـٰٓئِكَ هُمُ ٱلْفَـٰسِقُونَ ٤٧

In Surah 5:43 - 47, Allah asks Muhammad why the Jews and Christians keep coming to him for advice. Allah says that they (Jews and Christians) have the Torah and the Gospel. The Allah says that Christians have no ground to stand on unless they stand on the Gospel.

I wanted to react to this part separately.

The Gospel and the Thorah were also revealed by Allah. He knows what He has revealed in those scriptures. This verse specifically refers back to those original, unaltered scriptures. you cannot conclude from this verse alone wheter the thorah and Gospels were altered or not during that time.

[Bennett Spies]

There is no dilemma.
The Thorah and the Gospel were already altered at the time of the Prophet sas. (the Quran says this and the Quran has been revealed during this period)...but it is irrelevant, because a new book (the Quraan) has been revealed for the whole human kind and needs to be followed.

[Response] I specifically asked for Quran verses to support your position. Where does the Quran teach that the Gospel and Torah are corrupted?

[Bennett Spies]

I don't think you understand my argument:

If Muhammad is telling Jews and Christians to judge by their Scriptures, then he is assuming that the Scriptures they have are authoritative.

If the Jewish and Christian Scriptures had already been altered by Muhammad's time, then he would be guilty of telling people to judge by something that wasn't inspired by Allah.

So, either the Jewish and Christian Scriptures in 600 AD were the preserved words of God... or Muhammad told people to judge by something that was not the words of Allah.

[Tawheed]

Indeed the last and final Prophet is Prophet Muhammad and the book revealed to Prophet Muhammad the Quran is the total truth of all times.

[Tawheed]

Jesus was a Muslim did not eat pork...

[Ümit]

I don't think you understand my argument:

If Muhammad is telling Jews and Christians to judge by their Scriptures, then he is assuming that the Scriptures they have are authoritative.

No. You are assuming that he assumes that those scriptures are authorative...which is a false assumption from your side.

İ do understand the point you are trying to make...but you are not seeing the whole picture.
In order to fully understand a verse in the Quraan, you need to have more info than only the translation. You need the context. You need to understand where and when that verse was revealed and why. What was going on in the world.
Read the tafsir about that verse and you will understand everything better.

If the Jewish and Christian Scriptures had already been altered by Muhammad's time, then he would be guilty of telling people to judge by something that wasn't inspired by Allah.

So, either the Jewish and Christian Scriptures in 600 AD were the preserved words of God... or Muhammad told people to judge by something that was not the words of Allah.

Again...false assumptions from your side.
You are trying to imagine in your head how it may have happened, because you do not have the information to understand the situation.

Read Tafsir ibn Kathir

[Bennett Spies]

Why does the word of God need someone else to provide the context.The context of 5:43 - 47 is Jewish people coming to Muhammad asking for a ruling and he says 'go read your own book, for Allah gave it to you.'That is the most clear reading of the text.

- - - Updated - - -

Just an update: The only one who has quoted the Quran is me... Muslims, if I am misunderstanding the teaching of the Quran, then use the Quran to prove me wrong.

[Ümit]

Why does the word of God need someone else to provide the context.The context of 5:43 - 47 is Jewish people coming to Muhammad asking for a ruling and he says 'go read your own book, for Allah gave it to you.'That is the most clear reading of the text.

- - - Updated - - -

Just an update: The only one who has quoted the Quran is me... Muslims, if I am misunderstanding the teaching of the Quran, then use the Quran to prove me wrong.

The context is needed to prevent people to think out imaginary situations to misinterpret the quraan.

You need to understand what was going on at that moment in order to fully understand the verse. That is why.

Now, take my advise and read tafsir ibn Kathir on this verse and you will understand it much better.

İf you choose not to do that, it means you are not open for the truth...and therefore please leave us alone

[Bennett Spies]

The context is needed to prevent people to think out imaginary situations to misinterpret the quraan.

You need to understand what was going on at that moment in order to fully understand the verse. That is why.

Now, take my advise and read tafsir ibn Kathir on this verse and you will understand it much better.

İf you choose not to do that, it means you are not open for the truth...and therefore please leave us alone

Again, I specifically asked for Quran quotes that teach the Torah and Quran have been corrupted.
The failure to provide such quotes demonstrates that the Quran does not teach the corruption of the Torah and Gospel.

[Muhammad]

Hello,

Why does the word of God need someone else to provide the context.

I wonder, then, why you have gone against the teachings of your Bible:

(i) "My Father is greater than I."[The Bible, John 14:28]

(ii) "My Father is greater than all."[The Bible, John 10:29]

(iii) "…I cast out devils by the Spirit of God…."[The Bible, Mathew 12:28]

(iv) "…I with the finger of God cast out devils…."[The Bible, Luke 11:20]

(v) "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgement is just; because I seek not my own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me."[The Bible, John 5:30]

If you can address this dilemma then perhaps we can help you with regards to your poor understanding of the Qur'an.

[Ümit]

Again, I specifically asked for Quran quotes that teach the Torah and Quran have been corrupted.
The failure to provide such quotes demonstrates that the Quran does not teach the corruption of the Torah and Gospel.

İm suprised that you dare to challenge us with such an undefendable claim.
Just google it and you will find multiple verses that say exactly that.

But lets say for the sake of argument, there is no such verse...
Even then, the Thorah and Gospels would lose their authority with the revelation of the Quraan.

[Bennett Spies]

Every single Muslim in this forum has failed to demonstrate where the Quran teaches that the Torah and Gospel are corrupt.

[Bennett Spies]

Hello, I wonder, then, why you have gone against the teachings of your Bible:

(i) "My Father is greater than I."[The Bible, John 14:28](ii) "My Father is greater than all."[The Bible, John 10:29](iii) "…I cast out devils by the Spirit of God…."[The Bible, Mathew 12:28](iv) "…I with the finger of God cast out devils…."[The Bible, Luke 11:20](v) "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgement is just; because I seek not my own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me."[The Bible, John 5:30]

If you can address this dilemma then perhaps we can help you with regards to your poor understanding of the Qur'an.

Easy: i) The Father is greater than Jesus while Jesus is incarnate. Because Jesus humbled Himself to become a man, the Father is temporarily greater than Jesus. (Philippians 2:5 - 11) ii) The Father (who is by nature God) is greater than all because He is God. The Father is temporarily greater than Jesus because Jesus has humbled Himself and become a man (again see Philippians). iii) I honestly don't understand why you brought up this passage, but what Jesus says is very clear. The Jews are accusing Him of being possessed and Jesus responds, "how can Satan cast out Satan... but it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons." This passage actually teaches Trinitarian theology, because it distinguishes the 'Spirit of God' as a unique person who gives Jesus power to perform miracles. iv) Again, I don't understand why you brought up this passage, unless you want to say that Matthew and Luke are contradicting. They are not. Because the Holy Spirit is by nature God, Jesus can at the same time cast out demons by the power of God and by the power of the Holy Spirit, because the Holy Spirit is God. v) Before I respond to this I would like to draw your attention to the preceding passage: John 5:17 - 18 "But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working." This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God." Notice how Jesus is making Himself equal with God (this directly refutes Muhammad's claims in Quran 5:116).But yes, Jesus does say that He cannot do any other will but the will of the Father. This is because the Father Son and Spirit are all one in being and share the same will... the will of God.Also, if you are claiming that because Jesus submits to the will of God that makes Him a Muslim then you would be committing the 'equivocation fallacy'.So, there you go. All you questions have been answered. Also notice how I provided citations from both the Bible and the Quran to support my arguments.I will also point out that instead of answering my questions you decided to dodge and ask me questions instead (this shows me that you don't have a good response to my question and must resort to poorly attacking Christianity). This is not a problem for me of course, because the Gospel of Jesus Christ is true and the power of God to salvation.God bless you.

[Ümit]

Easy: i) The Father is greater than Jesus while Jesus is incarnate. Because Jesus humbled Himself to become a man, the Father is temporarily greater than Jesus. (Philippians 2:5 - 11) ii) The Father (who is by nature God) is greater than all because He is God. The Father is temporarily greater than Jesus because Jesus has humbled Himself and become a man (again see Philippians). iii) I honestly don't understand why you brought up this passage, but what Jesus says is very clear. The Jews are accusing Him of being possessed and Jesus responds, "how can Satan cast out Satan... but it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons." This passage actually teaches Trinitarian theology, because it distinguishes the 'Spirit of God' as a unique person who gives Jesus power to perform miracles. iv) Again, I don't understand why you brought up this passage, unless you want to say that Matthew and Luke are contradicting. They are not. Because the Holy Spirit is by nature God, Jesus can at the same time cast out demons by the power of God and by the power of the Holy Spirit, because the Holy Spirit is God. v) Before I respond to this I would like to draw your attention to the preceding passage: John 5:17 - 18 "But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working." This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God." Notice how Jesus is making Himself equal with God (this directly refutes Muhammad's claims in Quran 5:116).But yes, Jesus does say that He cannot do any other will but the will of the Father. This is because the Father Son and Spirit are all one in being and share the same will... the will of God.Also, if you are claiming that because Jesus submits to the will of God that makes Him a Muslim then you would be committing the 'equivocation fallacy'.So, there you go. All you questions have been answered. Also notice how I provided citations from both the Bible and the Quran to support my arguments.I will also point out that instead of answering my questions you decided to dodge and ask me questions instead (this shows me that you don't have a good response to my question and must resort to poorly attacking Christianity). This is not a problem for me of course, because the Gospel of Jesus Christ is true and the power of God to salvation.God bless you.

How is this not the dumbest thing to believe in?
İf jesus can not do anything without the father
And if the father is greater than jesus
And if the father and jesus are one anyways...

Then why would you take the dumbest risk in the world and still pray to Jesus?
Just pray to God and remove all doubt.

İt never made any sense.

[Muhammad]

Easy: i) The Father is greater than Jesus while Jesus is incarnate. Because Jesus humbled Himself to become a man, the Father is temporarily greater than Jesus. (Philippians 2:5 - 11) ii) The Father (who is by nature God) is greater than all because He is God. The Father is temporarily greater than Jesus because Jesus has humbled Himself and become a man (again see Philippians). iii) I honestly don't understand why you brought up this passage, but what Jesus says is very clear. The Jews are accusing Him of being possessed and Jesus responds, "how can Satan cast out Satan... but it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons." This passage actually teaches Trinitarian theology, because it distinguishes the 'Spirit of God' as a unique person who gives Jesus power to perform miracles. iv) Again, I don't understand why you brought up this passage, unless you want to say that Matthew and Luke are contradicting. They are not. Because the Holy Spirit is by nature God, Jesus can at the same time cast out demons by the power of God and by the power of the Holy Spirit, because the Holy Spirit is God. v) Before I respond to this I would like to draw your attention to the preceding passage: John 5:17 - 18 "But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working." This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God." Notice how Jesus is making Himself equal with God (this directly refutes Muhammad's claims in Quran 5:116).But yes, Jesus does say that He cannot do any other will but the will of the Father. This is because the Father Son and Spirit are all one in being and share the same will... the will of God.Also, if you are claiming that because Jesus submits to the will of God that makes Him a Muslim then you would be committing the 'equivocation fallacy'.So, there you go. All you questions have been answered. Also notice how I provided citations from both the Bible and the Quran to support my arguments. I will also point out that instead of answering my questions you decided to dodge and ask me questions instead (this shows me that you don't have a good response to my question and must resort to poorly attacking Christianity). This is not a problem for me of course, because the Gospel of Jesus Christ is true and the power of God to salvation.God bless you.

I hope you can now see how silly your earlier statement is: 'Why does the word of God need someone else to provide the context.' Look at how much explanation you have provided above regarding those verses from the Bible. If you are able to understand the importance of context for the Bible, you should have no problem in understanding that the same applies to the Qur'an. By the way, quoting Philippians 2:5-11 does not support trinitarian belief. 'Form of God' does not mean that Jesus is god, rather it is saying he is in accord or harmony with God. This is similar to how Jesus told the pharisees that the Father is greater than all (John 10:29) before he said “I and the Father are one” (John 10:30), so it is obvious that Jesus wasn't saying that he was equal with God. Moreover, the verse in Philippians says he did not consider equality with God 'something to be grasped', which is a powerful argument against the trinity. We do not have two Jesus' - the equal Jesus and the not-equal Jesus. There is only one Jesus and he is not equal with God:

John 10:29- My Father, which gave them me, is GREATER than all;John 14:28- my Father is GREATER than I.

In Surah 5:43 - 47, Allah asks Muhammad why the Jews and Christians keep coming to him for advice. Allah says that they (Jews and Christians) have the Torah and the Gospel. The Allah says that Christians have no ground to stand on unless they stand on the Gospel.Here's the point: Muhammad says to the people of his day that they have the Torah and the Gospel, and that the Christians of his day must judge by what the Gospel says.

The context of these verses actually goes back to 5:41 (the beginning of the same passage you quoted):

O Messenger! Do not grieve for those who race to disbelieve—those who say, “We believe” with their tongues, but their hearts are in disbelief. Nor those among the Jews who eagerly listen to lies, attentive to those who are too arrogant to come to you. They distort the Scripture, taking rulings out of context, then say, “If this is the ruling you get ˹from Muḥammad˺, accept it. If not, beware!” ... [5:41]

By reading from the beginning, you can clearly see that this is not about ascribing validity to the distorted scriptures, rather these verses highlight a disingenuous attitude on the part of Jews and Christians who claim to believe in the Torah and the Injeel yet do not implement their teachings. The meaning of 5:43, therefore, is an expression of wonder as to how do they seek you to judge between them despite the fact that they do not believe in your Message and do not believe that you are a Prophet, and they neglected the Torah which they believed to be God's Rulings. Another point to be noted is that Allah gave glad tidings of the coming of the Prophet Muhammad in the Torah and the Injeel, and ordered them to believe in him, follow him and support him. Allah Says (what means):

And (remember) when 'Eesa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary), said: "O Children of Israel! I am the Messenger of Allaah unto you confirming the Tawraat (Torah) which came before me, and giving glad tidings of a Messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad.} [Quran 61:6]. Those who follow the Messenger, the Prophet who can neither read nor write (i.e. Muhammad) whom they find written with them in the Tawraat (Torah) and the Injeel (Gospel). [Quran 7:157].

[This is mentioned in the Torah (Deut, xviii, 15), and Injeel (Gospel) (John xiv, 16)]

Therefore, if the Jews and Christians truly judged by the Torah and the Injeel, they would find therein an order for them to follow the Prophet Muhammad about whom glad tidings were given in their own books.Let us now look at verse 5:48:

We have revealed to you ˹O Prophet˺ this Book with the truth, as a confirmation of previous Scriptures and a supreme authority on them. So judge between them by what Allah has revealed, and do not follow their desires over the truth that has come to you. To each of you We have ordained a code of law and a way of life. If Allah had willed, He would have made you one community, but His Will is to test you with what He has given ˹each of˺ you. So compete with one another in doing good. To Allah you will all return, then He will inform you ˹of the truth˺ regarding your differences.

After mentioning the previous scriptures, Allah now mentions the Qur'an and establishes an important principle, which is that the Qur'an is the final authority over them. All of this is in the very same passage which you quoted (whose translation you actually confused with 5:68). I suggest you re-read the passage within its proper context and hopefully you will understand it better this time.

[Bennett Spies]

This is an ad-hock response that does nothing to present logical and founded arguments

[Bennett Spies]

If the Torah and the Gospel contained prophetic commands to follow Muhammad, and the Jews in 600 AD could search in the Torah and find them, then the Torah and Gospel would have to be preserved.

[Muhammad]

This is an ad-hock response that does nothing to present logical and founded arguments

Yet you provide no explanation to validate this statement. You have been directed to look at the context which, in any serious discussion, is the logical thing to do and the way to provide proper evidence.

If the Torah and the Gospel contained prophetic commands to follow Muhammad, and the Jews in 600 AD could search in the Torah and find them, then the Torah and Gospel would have to be preserved.

The fact that the Tawrah and the Injeel have been falsified does not mean that each and every word in them was falsified. For instance, the ruling of stoning to death which was revealed in chapter five of the Qur’an, existed in the Torah at the time of the Prophet صلى الله عليه وسلم. It seems you have nothing further to add so I will now close this thread to avoid wasting time on needless debate.