Many people tell us "but the Bible clearly says that Jesus is the Son of God. How can you say that Jesus is not God's only begotten son when Jesus says it so clearly in black and white in the Bible?" Well, first of all, as seen in the previous section, we first need to know the language of his people, the language of the Jews to whom he was speaking. Let us see how they understood this proclamation.
Let us begin by asking: How many sons does the Bible tell us that God Almighty has?
Jacob is God's son and firstborn: "Israel is my son, even my firstborn" Exodus 4:22.
Solomon is God's son "He shall build an house for my name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom for ever. I will be his father, and he shall be my son": 2 Samuel 7:13-14.
Ephraim is God's firstborn: "for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn" Jeremiah 31:9 (who is God's firstborn? Israel or Ephraim?).
Adam is the son of God "Adam, which was the son of God" Luke 3:38.
Common people (you and me) are the sons of God:
"Ye are the children of the LORD your God" Deuteronomy 14:1.
"For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the sons of God" Romans 8:14.
"But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, [even] to them that believe on his name" John 1:12.
"That ye may be blameless and harmless, the sons of God, without rebuke, in the midst of a crooked and perverse nation, among whom ye shine as lights in the world;" Philippians 2:15.
"Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: ... now are we the sons of God" 1 John 3:1-2.
"When the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy?" Job 38:7.
"Again there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD," Job 2:1.
"Now there was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before the LORD," Job 1:6.
"when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men," Genesis 6:4.
"That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they [were] fair" Genesis 6:2
As we can see, the use of the term "son of God" when describing normal human beings was not at all an uncommon practice among Jesus' people.
Well then, was Jesus the only begotten son of God? Read Psalms 2:7 : "I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me (King David, King), Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee"
Indeed, the Jews are even referred to as much more than this in the Bible, and this is indeed the very trait which Jesus (pbuh) held against them. When the Jews picked up stones to stone Jesus (pbuh) he defended himself with the following words
"Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, 'I said, Ye are gods?' If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken..." John 10:34:
(he was referring to Psalms 82:6 "I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High..") As we can see from these and many other verses like them, "son of God" in the language of the Jews was a very innocent term used to describe a loyal servant of God. Whether the translators and editors chose to write it as "Son of God" (with a capital S) in reference to Jesus and "son of God" (with a small S) in reference to everyone else does not diminish the fact that in the original language, both cases are exactly the same. Are we beginning to see what drove the most learned men of the Anglican Church to recognize the truth? But let us move on.
Grolier's encyclopedia, under the heading "Jesus Christ," says:
"During his earthly life Jesus was addressed as rabbi and was regarded as a prophet. Some of his words, too, place him in the category of sage. A title of respect for a rabbi would be "my Lord." Already before Easter his followers, impressed by his authority, would mean something more than usual when they addressed him as "my Lord.".... it is unlikely that the title "Son of David" was ascribed to him or accepted by him during his earthly ministry. "Son of God," in former times a title of the Hebrew kings (Psalms 2:7), was first adopted in the post-Easter church as an equivalent of Messiah and had no metaphysical connotations (Romans 1:4). Jesus was conscious of a unique filial relationship with God, but it is uncertain whether the Father/Son language (Mark 18:32; Matt. 11:25-27 par.; John passim) goes back to Jesus himself" .
There seems to be only two places in the Bible where Jesus (pbuh) refers to himself as "son of God." They are in John chapters 5 and 11. Hastings in "The dictionary of the Bible" says: "Whether Jesus used it of himself is doubtful." Regardless, we have already seen what is meant by this innocent title. However, Jesus is referred to as the "son of Man" (literally: "Human being") 81 times in the books of the Bible. In the Gospel of Barnabas, we are told that Jesus (pbuh) knew that mankind would make him a god after his departure and severely cautioned his followers from having anything to do with such people.
Jesus was not the son of a human man (according to both the Bible and the Qur'an). However, we find him constantly saying "I am the son of man." Why?. It was because in the language of the Jews, that is how you say "I am a human being."
What was he trying to tell us by constantly repeating and emphasizing to us throughout the New Testament "I am a human being," "I am a human being," "I am a human being"?. What had he foreseen? Think about it!.
Do Christians emphasize this aspect of Jesus? The New Testament Greek word translated as "son" are "pias" and "paida" which mean "servant," or "son in the sense of servant." These are translated to "son" in reference to Jesus and "servant" in reference to all others in some translations of the Bible (see below). As we are beginning to see, one of the most fundamental reasons why Jesus (pbuh) is considered God is due to extensive mistranslation. We shall see more and more examples of this throughout this book.
Islam teaches that Jesus (pbuh) was a human being, not a God. Jesus (peace be upon him) continually emphasized this to his followers throughout his mission. The Gospel of Barnabas also affirms this fact. Once again, Grolier's encyclopedia says:
"...Most problematical of all is the title "Son of Man." This is the only title used repeatedly by Jesus as a self-designation, and there is no clear evidence that it was used as a title of majesty by the post-Easter church. Hence it is held by many to be authentic, since it passes the criterion of dissimilarity."
Written by : Misha'al ibn Abdullah, 'What Did Jesus Really Say?'
Here are a few other Bible verses that call Jesus the "Son of Man."
Matthew 9:6 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
Public Domain
6But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.
Matthew 13:41 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
Public Domain
41The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity;
Matthew 16:13 (King James Version)
King James Version (KJV)
Public Domain
13When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, saying, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?
Jesus was not the son of a human man (according to both the Bible and the Qur'an). However, we find him constantly saying "I am the son of man." Why?. It was because in the language of the Jews, that is how you say "I am a human being."
What was he trying to tell us by constantly repeating and emphasizing to us throughout the New Testament "I am a human being," "I am a human being," "I am a human being"?. What had he foreseen? Think about it!.
Do Christians emphasize this aspect of Jesus? The New Testament Greek word translated as "son" are "pias" and "paida" which mean "servant," or "son in the sense of servant." These are translated to "son" in reference to Jesus and "servant" in reference to all others in some translations of the Bible (see below). As we are beginning to see, one of the most fundamental reasons why Jesus (pbuh) is considered God is due to extensive mistranslation. We shall see more and more examples of this throughout this book.
"Son of Man" is interpreted by Christians as having two meanings.
The first is that Jesus was a human being, as well as being an aspect of God/fully God/son of God (I won't go into the Trinity stuff again, that has been discussed at length recently). It isnt and if/or, but a "both". Two natures combined in one person.
The second is as a Messianic title, originating from Daniel 7: 13-14 which says
I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought Him near before Him. And there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed
There is no "mistranslation", and the author's claim is both simplistic and unscholarly. He either does not know his subject, or is deliberately ignoring large chunks to fit his agenda.
The New Testament was written in Greek, and translated rapidly into Latin. What matters is not a supposed direct translation of the Aramaic (not Hebrew here, note), or even a literal translation of the Greek, but what those words actually meant in Graeco-Roman (not Jewish) culture, and the context in which they were used. In particular that was an association with Hercules, considered to have been born human, suffered his famous labours, and become divine, to whom the phrase had also been applied.
As usual, I'm afraid, this sort of stuff shouldn't be taken too seriously. Facts that "fit" the author's tilt are frequently used out of context, those that don't are conveniently ignored. You see exactly the same things in some Christian attempts to debunk Islam... although Islam does have an inbuilt advantage in that translation is not an issue.
Once upon a time, fathers raised their sons to follow the path of righteousness and walk with God (Allah). They, certain of the fathers, decided that 'Son of Man' was ignorant to a point, and could not be held accountable for his actions... what you call a kafir? When these 'Sons of Man' became the age of 40, it was expected of them, that they acquire a certain level of wisdom and discipline over their flesh... they were, at that age, called the 'Sons of God'.
Today, any man, who is old enough to know better...
Matthew 14:33
Then those who were in the boat worshiped him, saying, "Truly you are the Son of God."
Matthew 16:16
Simon Peter answered, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God."
Matthew 4:6
"If you are the Son of God," he said, "throw yourself down. For it is written: " 'He will command his angels concerning you, and they will lift you up in their hands, so that you will not strike your foot against a stone.' "
Matthew 26:63-64
But Jesus remained silent.
The high priest said to him, "I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God."
"Yes, it is as you say," Jesus replied.
Luke 4:41
Moreover, demons came out of many people, shouting, "You are the Son of God!" But he rebuked them and would not allow them to speak, because they knew he was the Christ.
then the son of God
Luke 3:38
the son of Kenan, the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.
Romans 8:14
because those who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God.
Romans 8:19
The creation waits in eager expectation for the sons of God to be revealed.
well yeah the bible says the sons of God but NOT THE SON OF GOD..... huge difference...
well your a child of God comparing it to He is The Child of God
Grammar and context only. If you are speaking about 'them' you will write bene elohim. If you are speaking of one of 'them' you write ben elohim. But rest assured, there is more than sufficient proof that the tribe who used this title were addressing 'them' and, at times, certain of them.
Deuteronomy 14:1 You are the sons of your God. You shall not cut yourselves, nor make any baldness on your head on account of the dead.
This law was addressed to the men (plural) to prevent them from performing rituals deemed foreign. It basically explained to the Judean males that acts such as the festival of Ashurah... were illegal. Never mind that Ashurah didn't exit at that time... the practice certainly did.
Ezra (Uzayr) didn't use the title bene elohim. He preferred the title, Zerah Kodesh (Holy Seed). Different tribes used different titles... but these are only titles, similar to the one, Imam.
How many 'Sons' does God have?
... 17. When a long article/post has been posted, and you want to comment on the article/post, do not quote it since it is a waste of space.
Actually, no He isn't, as posted above. There is another begotten son. Psalms 2:7: "...Thou, (O David) art my son, this day have I (God) begotten thee.
Ummm, David was also 40 years old at the time. :confused:
Peace,
Hana
:sis:
"Whoever is deprived of gentleness is deprived of all good" (Sahîh Muslim, Sunan Abî Dawûd)
The best and most beautiful things in the world cannot be seen, nor touched...but are felt in the heart.
-Helen Keller
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أم ذي عينين كبيرين 
صفية و عمر 
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