This again was not my question. There are obviously some misunderstanding on your part. I wasn't asking for any theological or logical arguments there, I believe are plenty of arguments regarding the bible being the word of God. You indicated in your statements that you you can prove this
historically and the argument you gave are
not historical, but theological. I hope made myself this time. As you mentioned Bart Ehrman in a lot of his TTC courses he speaks about the differences between a historical approach and a theological approach. He also speaks about this in lesser details in his debates regarding historical proves for the resurrection of christ (a.s). If there are still some misunderstanding you should relisten these.
it would be my opinion that using the "historical" approach doesn't omit using changes in "apparent" theology as "evidence" of a historical difference. Paul's letters would be an example of this, the earlier letters hold 1 theology, while the latter appear to change or contradict the theology of the the 1st. historically, it shows a change in doctrine[theology].
As far as your arguments are concerned they are debateable to say at least. Are you aware of the differenciation between monotheist unitarians and monotheist trinitarians.
;D
Furthermore are you familiar with the common biblical exegesis regarding the passage about Paul's preaching of "his gospel"?
there's "Biblical" exegesis(theological) and there is what Paul actually says(historical)
And at last why do you think the pastoral letter's are not pauline in nature?
funny words you choose, eh? whether it's "Pauline in nature" would be the theological approach [though not exclusive of historical], or whether it's actually written by Paul or not would be a historical question [though not devoid of theological questions]

Hamza Abdulhakim