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anonymous
11-15-2011, 05:35 PM
Salaam All,

I know that a women's voice is aura to a man, so please could you tell me how should a muslim man behave in the worlkplace towards a women whether is be muslim or not? Or is there a different behaviour towards a non-beleiver?

Also, is it allowed for a muslim man to speak to a women in the workplace? Or is it the same sin as a muslim women talkin to the opposite sex in the workplace?

Please justify answers with quotes, as someone said its not too much of a sin than if a muslim man were to speak to the opposite sex and that a musim women speaking a man. Also, that someone also said the Quran is directed at beleivers, so does that make it justifiable to speak to opposite sex?
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aadil77
11-17-2011, 02:19 PM
in a workplace you talk to the opposite gender when you need to

but if they start up unecessary conversations change the subject, say you're busy and walk away - simple as
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Snowflake
11-17-2011, 06:52 PM
:sl:

I know that a women's voice is aura to a man,
so please could you tell me how should a muslim man behave in the worlkplace towards a women whether is be muslim or not? Or is there a different behaviour towards a non-beleiver?
Technically a woman's voice itself is not awrah. But she may not speak to a man in a way that makes her manner of speech attractive to him. This is more dangerous if a man and woman are alone, as the Prophet salallahu alayhi wa sallam said: "When a man and woman are alone, Shaytaan makes the third." Hadith - Ahmad and Al-Tirmidhi 3118, Narrated Umar ibn al-Khattab

, Tirmidhi transmitted it.

Note: The Prophet, salallahu alayhi wa sallam did not say 'whenever a muslim man and woman are alone.' He said, 'a man and woman'. Hence there is no difference whether the person you are dealing with is muslim or non muslim. In fact a non muslim female who doesn't fear God's punishments is more likely to tempt a man into committing sin.


I quote this from Muttaqun Online:
There is no harm in casual speech due to some need if it is free from any sort of evil. However, such speech must be restricted to only what is necessary - Shaikh ibn Jibreen



Note: "what is necessary" does not include emotional desires or 'needs'. This is referring to accomplishing things that are necessary and cannot be avoided, i.e. there is no appropriate person available to talk to in order to accomplish the needed goal or item. For instance, speaking with a doctor or mechanic, store clerk to inquire as to a price, etc., is that which is necessary. Socializing is not considered that which is necessary, even in the workplace.



Please justify answers with quotes, as someone said its not too much of a sin than if a muslim man were to speak to the opposite sex and that a musim women speaking a man. Also, that someone also said the Quran is directed at beleivers, so does that make it justifiable to speak to opposite sex?
The Quran is for all of mankind. But non muslims in a non Islamic state aren't bound by the Command or prohibition. If they were living in an Islamic state, they would be bound by prohibition only. As an example, they would not be commanded to pray salah, but they would be prohibited from adultery. So if they were convicted of adultery, either by the testimony of four witnesses/confession, then they would be punished.







The Miraculous Quran - Its not just for Muslims,but its for whole of "MANKIND" - Khalid Yasin




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