i got this in my mail some time back
March 1, 2012 - Yusuf Estes speaks out regarding so-called "Ancient Bible" proving Muhammad is Messiah - found in Turkey, etc., etc. . .
Bismillah Rahman Raheem, innal-Hamdulillah Rabbil Alameen, was-salata was-salama ala Rasool al-Kareem. Allahu 'Alim. What we find in the limited verses disclosed in the media, there is no doubt in my mind, this is fabrication - aimed at discrediting Islam and Muslims.
The plan seems to be, to have Muslims get all excited about this, promote on Facebook and the chatrooms, only to have some "expert" come along and prove the whole thing was a fake. This tears down the true dawah of Islam, makes Muslims look foolish and turns our own youth even further away from the deen of Allah.
Let me give only a brief summary of the findings we have collected and verified so far, inshallah:
To begin, notice the claim "Messiah" shall be called Mohammed (peace be upon him)?
This is a problem.
Quran clearly tells us JESUS IS THE MESSIAH (meaning 'annointed', translated into Koine Greek as 'Christos' and to English as "Christ"). Muhammad, peace be upon him, is called by Allah in the Quran, 'Rasool' (messenger) not Messiah.
Next point - It says, "Mohammed is his blessed name.."
Again, this contradicts the Quran. Clearly in surah As-Saff, chapter 61, verse 6, Allah says, that Jesus, peace be upon him, said "Huwa ismahu Ahmad" (His name will be AHMAD) Not Mohammad.
This is a different form of his name, and one that we all agree is one of his names.
However it is incorrect - because Allah did not say Jesus used the name 'Mohammad'.
Allah said, Jesus used the word 'Ahmad'.
Next point, "Jesus DENIED being the Messiah"??
All Muslims know, Jesus, peace be upon him, was and is - the Messiah (Annointed) of Allah.
That is what he is called in the Quran.
Another point, "..claiming that he or she"??
Since when did any of the accepted scriptures contain this type of reference to a prophet or messener of Allah? (never).
The 'Messiah' of the Old Testament was referred to as a male being born of a virgin (maiden) in Hebrew and the word was masculine - not feminine.
So how could the prophecies of the Old Testament, prophecy of New Testament and the fulfillment of prophecy in the Last Testament (Quran), all be wrong regarding the gender of the 'Messiah'?
Didn't the translator know the Arabic, Hebrew, Aramaic languages all have the same capability as Spanish and Italian to indicate within the noun itself what the gender is of the person?
True, in certain Germanic or European languages like English do you need to say, "he or she".
So again, there is no question of the gender of the 'Messiah'.
Just this one verse alone, clearly indicates someone played with scripture, as it would never contain such obvious contradictions.
This book cannot be seriously considered as anything more than another discovery of ancient rubbish.
