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Zobia
05-07-2012, 04:43 PM
Assalamu Alaikum,

What if a person has done a sin but at the time of the sin they never knew it was a sin? For example, the sin of shirk. What if a person has been far away from Islam all of their life because they've never been taught Islam growing up; well they were but not enough (more could have been done) and they've never even heard the word shirk let alone know their types or what it was and they accidentally did the sin of shirk (the sin of loving someone more than Allah without realising. They were far from religion.. far from Allah and then this happened, but they clearly didnt even realise what they were doing..)

What if the person did the sin of shirk but at the time of doing this sin had NO idea what shirk was, but then years later they look back and realise omg... I THINK I did shirk!! Is the person then accountable for this sin? Are they counted as being guilty of having done shirk? Like i said.. they really had no idea what shirk was AT ALL.They found out what shirk was a while after the sin had been done.. Are they still guilty/held accountable for the sin of shirk regardless of them having never heard/known/learnt about shirk at the time? Please provide evidence from q'uran and sunnah!

Jazakallah Khairun!
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~ Sabr ~
05-17-2012, 11:02 AM
:salamext:

I Want to Repent, But ...
English Translation
Book by Sheikh Muhammed Salih Al-Munajjid

Contents


Introduction


The danger of taking sin lightly


Conditions for the acceptance of repentance


Great acts of repentance


Repentance wipes out whatever came before it


Will Allaah forgive me?


The repentance of one who killed a hundred


What should I do when I have sinned?


Evil people pursue me


They threaten me


My sins haunt me


Should I confess?


Important fataawaa about repentance


Conclusion
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جوري
05-28-2012, 12:50 AM
The ignorance for which a person may be excused is ignorance of the ruling not of the punishment
ar - en - ur - es
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I understand that intentionally leaving prayer out of laziness is major kufr and the one who commits it is a kaafir unless they have the excuse of ignorance. But what is meant by the excuse of ignorance, ignorance of the obligation of salaah? or igno orance of the fact that abandoning prayer intentionally is kufr?
Please explain with some quotations from the salafi ulema.

Praise be to Allaah.
The ignorance for which a person may be excused is ignorance of the ruling. Whoever does not do an obligatory action because he does not know that it is obligatory, or he does a forbidden action because he does not know that it is forbidden, is an ignorant person who may be excused for his obedience.
But if a person knows that something is forbidden and he does it, but he is ignorant of the punishment for that, he has no excuse, because he has knowingly committed a sin and transgressed the bounds.
If a person commits zina – for example – and does not know that zina is haraam, he will not be punished and is excused for his ignorance. But if a person knows that zina is haraam but he does not know that the one who commits zina deserves the hadd punishment, then he has no excuse and the hadd punishment must be carried out on him, if the conditions for that are met.
Similarly, if a person does not pray and he does not know that prayer is obligatory, he is to be excused for his ignorance and is not regarded as a kaafir. But if a person does not pray and he knows that not praying is haraam but he does not know that not praying is kufr, then he is not to be excused.
There follows some evidence for the above, as well as some comments of the scholars:
(A) If a person is ignorant of the ruling on the forbidden action and does it, and there is some hadd punishment or expiation required for that, it is not required in his case.
The evidence for that is the words of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to a person who confessed that he had committed zina: “Do you know what zina is?” Narrated by Abu Dawood, 4428. This hadeeth was also reported in al-Saheehayn.
Ibn al-Qayyim – who classed the report of Abu Dawood as saheeh – said: The hadd punishment is not due for one who was ignorant of the fact that it is forbidden, because the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) asked him about the ruling on zina, and he said: I did with her wrongfully haraam what a man does with his wife lawfully.
Zaad al-Ma’aad, 5/33.
(B) If he knows that it is haraam but is ignorant of the consequences, whether a hadd punishment, required expiation or anything else, then the hadd punishment must be carried out on him because he dared to do something haraam, and he must offer the expiation if the sin requires expiation.
The evidence for that is the hadeeh of Maa’iz (may Allaah be pleased with him) who confessed that he had committed zina, in which he said: “O people, take me back to the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), for my people deceived me and killed me.” Narrated by Abu Dawood, 4420; its isnaad was classed as jayyid by al-Albaani (may Allaah have mercy on him) in al-Irwa’, 7/354. This Sahaabi (may Allaah have mercy on him) knew that it was haraam but he was unaware of the punishment.
Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allaah have mercy on him) said: This indicates that ignorance of the punishment does not excuse a person from the punishment if he knew that it is haraam. Maa’iz did not know that the punishment was execution, but this ignorance did not excuse him from the punishment.
Zaad al-Ma’aad, 5/34.
Similarly, the Sahaabi who had intercourse with his wife during the day in Ramadaan did it deliberately and knew that it was haraam. As was pointed out by al-Haafiz ibn Hajar in al-Fath (4/207), this is indicated by the fact that he said “I am doomed” – or according to another report, “I am burned.” The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) ruled that he had to offer expiation, and did not excuse him because he was unaware of it. This was narrated by al-Bukhaari, 1834; Muslim, 1111.
Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen (may Allaah have mercy on him) said:
If someone were to say: Wasn’t the man who came to the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) ignorant?
The answer is: He was ignorant of what was required of him; he was not ignorant of the fact that this was haraam. Hence he said, “I am doomed.” If we say that ignorance is an excuse, we are not referring to ignorance of the consequences of this haraam action, rather we are referring to ignorance of the ruling on this action and whether it is haraam or not. Hence if a person commits zina and is ignorant of the fact that it is haraam, and he does not live in a Muslim country, or he is new in Islam, or he lives in a remote area and does not know that zina is haraam, then no hadd punishment is to be carried out on him. But if he knows that zina is haraam, but he does not know that the hadd punishment for it is stoning, or lashing and banishment, then the hadd punishment should still be carried out on him, because he has transgressed a sacred limit. Ignorance of the consequences of a haraam action is no excuse. Ignorance of whether an action is haraam or not is an excuse.
Al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/417
And Allaah knows best.
Islam Q&A



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Zobia
09-12-2012, 01:50 AM
jazakallah for the answers :)
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