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Bint-e-Adam
09-25-2012, 12:51 PM
:sl:
i have a question that is so confusing me :(

i give you an example:

Free word order:



In this Table:
there are three forms that can be adopted.
But how can we understand that which is subject and which noun is object in it?
as we can also let that Laila love Qais.
plz explain me.


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marwen
09-25-2012, 01:22 PM
- The subject (فاعل) is always Marfu' (with dhamma) : the last letter is written with a ُ (dhamma) or ٌ (2 dhamma)
- The object (مفعول به) is always Mansoob (with fatha) : the last letter is written with a fatha (َ or 2 fatha (ً

- For nouns ending with (ى) like (ليلى) it's not possible to put haraka (dhamma or fatha) on the last letter (ى), so you can find out if it's a subject or an object by the context (other noun(s))
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Bint-e-Adam
09-26-2012, 03:23 AM
thnx so much. but how by context?
Reply

marwen
09-26-2012, 07:54 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by emaan_asif
thnx so much. but how by context?
You know that a Verb-Based sentence in arabic has the following form (a simple phrase) :

- VERB + NOUN1 + NOUN2
Or
- VERB + NOUN2 + NOUN1
Or
- NOUN1 + VERB + NOUN2

You can look at the ending of each noun (NOUN1 and NOUN2) to see if it is marfu' (ending with dhamma) ==> Faa'il (subject); or if it's Mansub (ending with fatha) ==> Maf'ool bihi (object).

By context :

- If there is no dhamma or fatha (or double dhamma/fatha) on NOUN1, you can look at the ending of the other noun (NOUN2) (if NOUN2 is a subject, then we deduce that NOUN1 is an object, and vice-versa)

- You can also look at the form of the verb which is conjugated in a masculine form if the subject is masculine, and in femenine form if the subject is femenine : this is possible if NOUN1 and NOUN2 have different genres ==> the subject is the noun which has the genre of the verb).

PS : Try to read a few texts with tashkeel, and you will perfectly understand the difference between Faa'il and Maf'ul bihi.

Example : [Surat Faatir, Ayah 28] إِنَّمَا يَخْشَى اللَّهَ مِنْ عِبَادِهِ الْعُلَمَاءُ
=> يَخْشَى اللَّهَ الْعُلَمَاءُ
=> يَخْشَى = فعل
=> الْعُلَمَاءُ = فاعل
=> اللَّهَ= مفعول به
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Bint-e-Adam
09-26-2012, 11:34 AM
oh now i understand alright thnx so much :)
one more thing!
what is the difference in the use of "maa"(ما) and "laa"(لا ) both means "not"???
Reply

marwen
09-26-2012, 11:59 AM
(لا ) = NO !

(ما) = NOT !
for example :
- Q : "هل أكلت ؟" (Did you eat ?)
- A : "ما أكلت" (I did not eat ?)
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
09-26-2012, 12:02 PM
oh really, that was really easy...
thnx i will ask as many question as i can, wouldn't u get annoyed?
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Bint-e-Adam
09-26-2012, 12:05 PM
but what in this case??

ان الله لا یخلف المیعاد

why it contains "laa"
as it means that :
"Allah do not go against to His promise."
Reply

marwen
09-26-2012, 01:19 PM
^ yes yes I'm sorry, لا sometimes can be used for NOT too, and most of the time for NO.
When it's used as (NOT) It means a general truth, or the negation of something just in the present.
It's used in general with a verb in the present tense (فعل مضارع)

But ما is only used for NOT. It's used before a verb in the past tense (فعل ماضي) in general.
(ما) is also used like (ماذا) at the beginning of question, in this case it means 'What'.
I could be forgetting other things hmm (that's why examples are good for learning arabic :) )
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
09-26-2012, 01:24 PM
:) Now it's clear :)
thnx
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
09-29-2012, 02:46 PM
Is it necessary to begin every sentence with "و "?
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
09-29-2012, 02:49 PM
Writing an essay, if we add every paragraph a heading,i mean making points, will it raise my marks in exams?
is it considered more easy or readable by making headings or writing simple as it is like a story?
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
09-29-2012, 02:58 PM
if we write the translation of any line as:
"Do i eat food?"
it will be gonna translated as :

"ھل انا أكل طعام؟"
as "أكل" is a verb denoting third person single.for "he".
why dont we write double alif as أأكل :)

2).second question:
is it neccessary to write "انا" for the translation of "i".
hope u will understand my question :))
Reply

Muwaahid
09-29-2012, 04:21 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
if we write the translation of any line as:
"Do i eat food?"
it will be gonna translated as :

"ھل انا أكل طعام؟"
as "أكل" is a verb denoting third person single.for "he".
why dont we write double alif as أأكل :)

If you want to say, "Do I eat food then you can say:


"هل آكل طعام؟



notice the Alif Maadah the elongated alif in آكل؟


if my memory serves me correctly this is how you indicate the faa'il the doer of the action but if you add the double alif as in:

أأكل then there is no need for هل to be present because the alif al-istifhaam [the alif used to question someone] is already there. I hope this is clear.


2).second question:
is it neccessary to write "انا" for the translation of "i".
hope u will understand my question :))
You can use any fi'l but just add the personal pronoun
ضمير
for example:

ذهبت الى المسجد
و سفرت الى اليمن
و مررت برجل صالح
وهكذا
I went to the masjid dhahabtu ilaa al-masjidi
I travelled to Yemen
I walked with a righteous man
and like that
Reply

Muwaahid
09-29-2012, 04:36 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
Is it necessary to begin every sentence with "و "?
No it is not necessary to begin every sentence with "و"
خذي مثلا:
ذهبت الى المسجد ثمّ بعد ذلك اكلت طاعم لذيذ
I went to the masjid then after that I ate some delicious food.
Reply

marwen
09-29-2012, 05:39 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
Writing an essay, if we add every paragraph a heading,i mean making points, will it raise my marks in exams?
is it considered more easy or readable by making headings or writing simple as it is like a story?
No, . Like any language, no need to put headings if you write a continued and coherent text.

format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
why dont we write double alif as أأكل
The base form of the verb is (أكل), add to that the first person pronoun (أ) you will get (أأكل). But in arabic whenever you find tow consecutive (أ) letters they are converted to (آ) for easier pronounciation.
So it is آكل like brother Muwaahid said.
(آ) is prounounced like long "aa" (the second hamza is prounounced as Alif (in quran you can find آ written like this ءا (hamza+alif)which has the same role example ( آمن = ءامن) ) )
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
09-30-2012, 02:45 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muwaahid
If you want to say, "Do I eat food then you can say:


"هل آكل طعام؟



notice the Alif Maadah the elongated alif in آكل؟


if my memory serves me correctly this is how you indicate the faa'il the doer of the action but if you add the double alif as in:

أأكل then there is no need for هل to be present because the alif al-istifhaam [the alif used to question someone] is already there. I hope this is clear.
Oh really really thanks dear brother,
I was confusing with the "alif" of first person pronoun.
now that's clear :)
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
09-30-2012, 02:47 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by marwen
No, . Like any language, no need to put headings if you write a continued and coherent text.


The base form of the verb is (أكل), add to that the first person pronoun (أ) you will get (أأكل). But in arabic whenever you find tow consecutive (أ) letters they are converted to (آ) for easier pronounciation.
So it is آكل like brother Muwaahid said.
(آ) is prounounced like long "aa" (the second hamza is prounounced as Alif (in quran you can find آ written like this ءا (hamza+alif)which has the same role example ( آمن = ءامن) ) )
but some of my essays are in coherent text while some are in form of headings.
it seems easy to me to learn any essay in form of headings as i don't forget it easily.
and thnx dear. i was also confused with the "alif mad" in Quran. now it's clear...
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
09-30-2012, 03:35 AM
i have another question :)
and this time i have a long questions list :)

in my syllabus there are short stories also. form which i am giving here as i have learned it today and have some confusions regarding to it's grammar.
this is the story:





حكي أن الثعلب أطلع في بئر و هو عأطش و عليها رشاء في طرفيه دلوان ، و قعد في الدلو العليا فانحدرفشرب ، فجاءت الضبع، فأطلعت في البئر فأبصرت القمر في الماء منتصفأ ، و الثعلب قاعد في قعر البئر، فقالت له:
ما تصنع هنا؟ فقال لها إني أكلت نصف هذه الجبنة و بقي نصفها لك فانزلي فكليها، فقالت و كيف أنزل؟ قال تقعدين في الدلو فقعدت فيها، فانحدرت و إرتفع الثعلب في الدلو الأخرى، فلما التقيا في وسط البئر، قالت له:ما هذا ؟ ، قال التجار تختلف
:مغزاه
١. صاحب الغرض مجنون
٢. الحريص محروم / الطامع محروم.






i have no problem in its translation as there is also translation present in my text book.

and here are the questions:
1). In this story the fox is male and الضبع is male.. but why the verbs are used opposite? as "فجاءت الضبع، فأطلعت في البئر" .
2). Why is " تقعدين" used here ? as the fox is commanding him : "sit". why not "أقعد" as "alif" is used to command.
3). why we use "إرتفع" here instead of "رفع" ?
4). what is the meaning of "فكليها" here? why we are not using "فأكلها"?
5). what is the difference between these two words: " الحريص" and "الطامع" ?
6). why we use "التقيا" here instead of "ألقاء" ?
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marwen
09-30-2012, 10:02 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
1). In this story the fox is male and الضبع is male.. but why the verbs are used opposite? as "فجاءت الضبع، فأطلعت في البئر" .
2). Why is " تقعدين" used here ? as the fox is commanding him : "sit". why not "أقعد" as "alif" is used to command.
3). why we use "إرتفع" here instead of "رفع" ?
4). what is the meaning of "فكليها" here? why we are not using "فأكلها"?
5). what is the difference between these two words: " الحريص" and "الطامع" ?
6). why we use "التقيا" here instead of "ألقاء" ?
:bism:

1) I guess الضبع can be used for the name of the species, so it's used for male and female. here from the femenine form of the verb (فجاءت) it's a female.

2) the female hyena asked the fox : فقالت و كيف أنزل؟
so the fox gave her instructions on what to do : (you do that, then that etc.)
He didn't use the command form, he just used an informative form (جملة اخبارية).

3) the form of the verb "إرتفع" is called مزيد (extended), it's derived from the verb "رفع" with addition of the 2 letters (ا) and (ت) :

- (رفع) is in the form/(wazn) called (فعل) (fa'ala) : this form means the subject does the action (on another object).
==> رفع = to pull something up ()

- (ارتفع) is in the form called (افتعل) (ifta'ala). this form means to do the action on himelf / or to get the action done on himself (the subject is also the object) (this form of verbs is generally called 'laazim' (لازم : it means it doesn't need an object after the verb)
==> ارتفع = to pull himself up / or to move up

4) "فكليها" :
كٌل : is the verb (أكل) in the command form.
ي : is the pronoun of the femenine 2nd person (أنت) who is addressed (is the subject, الضبع).
ها : is the pronoun of the femenine 3rd person (هي) who is the object (الجبنة )

Examples of the command form :
- Eat ! O Ahmad ! : ! كل ! يا أحمد
- Eat ! O Aisha ! : ! كلي ! يا عائشة

5)
- حريص = eager, wishful, assiduous.
- طامع = greedy, avid to something (is the opposit of "قانع" : contented/satisfied)

6)
"ألقاء" is not correct.

التقى : "iltaqa" he 'met' (with someone)
التقيا : "iltaqaya" they met (each other)


Hope this is clear. Feel free to ask questions if this is not clear or convincing.
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Bint-e-Adam
09-30-2012, 11:16 AM
then what is the main word? is it "ilqaa" or "iltiqaa"

if "iltiqaa" then what is the meaning of "ilqaa"??

and what is "ين "

" تقعدين" ?

and really really thanks for your detailed and helpful answers.
thank u :)
Reply

marwen
09-30-2012, 02:07 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
then what is the main word? is it "ilqaa" or "iltiqaa"

if "iltiqaa" then what is the meaning of "ilqaa"??
What you mean by the main word ? do you mean the Noun corresponding to that verb. Please explain more.
Anyway, here is 3 similar words and their meanings : I hope it helps.

Verb conjugated
with هو (he)
Verb conjugated
with هما (they 2 persons)
Derived noun
Example 1
(to throw)
ألقى
alqa
ألقيا
alqaya
القاء
ilqa’un
Example 2
(to find)
لقي
laqiya
لقيا
laqiya
لقاء
liqa’un
Example 3
(to meet)
التقى
iltqa
التقيا
iltaqaya
لقاء- التقاء
liqa’un / ilqa’un


format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
and what is "ين "

"تقعدين" ?
« تقعدين » : the (ت) prefix and the (ين) suffix, indicate that the verb (base form = قعد) is conjugated with the femenine second person (أنت ‘anti’) in the ‘present’ tense (المضارع).
See the word in red in the table below.

Here is a table showing the different changes that occur on the base form of the verb (قعد) when conjugated with the different persons, in the present and the past tenses.

Person Past Present
أََنَا
ana (I)
قَعَدْتُ
qa-ad’-tu
أَقْعُدُ
aq-udu
أَنْتَ
anta (you masc.)
قَعَدْتَ
qa-ad’-ta
تَقْعُدُ
taq-udu
أَنْتِ
anti (you fem.)
قَعَدْتِ
qa-ad’-ti
تَقْعُدِينَ
taq-udi-na
هُوَ
huwa (he)
قَعَدَ
qa-ada
يَقْعُدُ
yaq-udu
هِيَ
hiya (she)
قَعَدَتْ
qa-adat
تَقْعُدُ
taq-udu
أَنْتُمَا
antuma (You masc. pl. 2 persons)
قَعَدْتُمَا
qa-ad’-tuma
تَقْعُدَانِ ِ
taq-uda-ni
أَنْتُمَا
antuma (You fem. pl.2 persons)
قَعَدْتُمَا
qa-ad’-tuma
تَقْعُدَانِ
taq-uda-ni
هُمَا
huma (They masc. pl. 2)
قَعَدَا
qa-adaa
يَقْعُدَانِ
yaq-uda-ni
هُمَا
huma (They fem. pl. 2)
قَعَدتَا
qa-ada-taa
تَقْعُدَانِ
taq-uda-ni
أنْتُمْ
antum (You masc. pl.)
قَعَدْتُمْ
qa-ad’-tum
تَقْعُدُونَ
taq-udu-na
أَنْتُنَّ
antunna (You fem. pl.)
قَعَدْتُنَّ
qa-ad’-tunna
تَقْعُدْنَ
taq-ud’-na
هُمْ
hum (They masc. pl.)
قَعَدُوا
qa-adou
يَقْعُدُونَ
yaq-udu-na
هُنَّ
hunna (They masc. pl.)
قَعَدْنَ
qa-ad’-na
يَقْعُدْنَ
yaq-ud’-na

You may want to view similar tables for other verbs to understand more. It’s called ‘tasreef-ul-afaal’ (conjugation of the verbs), it looks difficult in the beginning, but after leaning the tasreef of some verbs, you get the skills. Try to read meany examples.
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Bint-e-Adam
09-30-2012, 04:41 PM
yeah i have started learning it. but i had not read the "تقعدين" yet. now its cleared :)
thanx a lot dear brother.
i will update my questions daily here inshALlah and will annoy u perhaps :)
Reply

marwen
09-30-2012, 06:14 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
i will update my questions daily here inshALlah and will annoy u perhaps
No you wont be annoying inshallah :D you can not learn without asking questions.
Just ask any questions here, and if I could help, I will do insha Allah, and if I am unable to help, other brothers and sisters here will do insha Allah. (Remember : Muslims are the best ummah because they help each other)
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-01-2012, 02:05 AM
obviously Our Ummah is the best as we are the Ummah of the Best Prophet (S.A.W).
لا شك في إنا خير الأمة لأن رسولنا صلي الله عليه و سلم هو خير ألرسول.

is it right :)?
i translated it myself .
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-01-2012, 02:17 AM
what is the meaning of its grammar?

"اجتمعت"

as its translation in my book is:
"it united"
this word is a singular third masculine person. but why it is having"ت" rather it should be "أجتمع"
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Muwaahid
10-01-2012, 10:04 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
what is the meaning of its grammar?

"اجتمعت"

اجتمعت comes from the root word
جمع يجمع جمعا which means to add together, to collect,to bring together,to assemble,to reunite,to hold two or more things in combination.

As for the expression or صيغة you asked about اجتمعت then it comes from اجتمع يجتمع اجتماعا
which means to come together, to collect to meet, to agree collectively as it comes in the following examples:

اجتمع المسلمون على رحل اختاروه خليفة
The Muslims have concurred with one another about a man whom they have chosen as (the) Khalifah.

or
احتمع المسلمون على كلمة واحدة ألا و هي
قول: لا اله الا الله و محمد الرسول الله
The Muslims have gathered upon [or united upon] one word and that is or [and that is none other than] the statement: laa ilaaha illa Allah and Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah.

it is on the wazin of if'ta'ala or افتعل
which is the eighth wazin in the awzaan chart, im not sure if you have an wazin chart but if you dont i can recommen one,they are very helpful.

as its translation in my book is:
"it united"
this word is a singular third masculine person. but why it is having"ت" rather it should be "أجتمع"


You have to understand it in its proper context of the sentence, could you post the sentence?
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-01-2012, 10:09 AM
What is the difference between these three words and they have same meaning (water)? plz explain them:
1. يم
2. المياه
3. ماء
and if u know any other word used for water then tell and explain plz.
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-01-2012, 02:08 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muwaahid
You have to understand it in its proper context of the sentence, could you post the sentence?
قال يا أبت ! لا تند فان المياه التي كنا نختلط بلبنها اجتمعت فغرقها




Now i want to ask another thing: why did the boy said "أبت" why not "أبي "???
Reply

Muhaba
10-01-2012, 02:45 PM
لا when followed by a majzum verb means it is an imperitive sentence (an order not to do something). Just like a command (imperitive sentence ) has a majzum verb, a negative command also has a majzum verb after it.

Take the example of : لا تذهبْ laa tazhab means don't go.

When لا is followed by a marfoo verb (with damma, for example) it is a negative sentence. For example: هي لا تذهبُ (hiya laa tazhabo) means she is not going. This is a present tense negative sentence.

In these sentences a verb follows laa.

a noun may also follow laa. That is a negative nominal sentence. For example, laa waladun fil ghurfaa. There is no boy in the room.

As for maa ما it is usually used in the past tense sentence. For example, ما درستُ maa darasto, i did not study.

in addition to maa and laa, there are other words that make the sentence negative. Such as لَمْ and ليس .
لم has the same effect on the sentence as ما
That is it makes the sentence past negative. The difference is that لم is used with the present tense verb. So لم أدرس and ما درست mean the same thing: I did not study.

Another thing is that the verb after لم is majzoom (has a sukoon, for example).

Check out my Arabic course in the Arabic section, EZ arabic for beginners, that explain all of these very well.
Reply

Muhaba
10-01-2012, 02:49 PM
It is similar to using different words for father in English , Dad, Daddy, and Father. A non-english speaker may inquire why someone said "Daddy" and not Dad.

I believe in arabic, using أبت shows endearment.
Reply

Muwaahid
10-01-2012, 04:15 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat

قال يا أبت ! لا تند فان المياه التي كنا نختلط بلبنها اجتمعت فغرقها

it seems that ijtamiat refers to بلبنها and فغرقها because both of them have the femenine signs wallahu alam



Now i want to ask another thing: why did the boy said "أبت" why not "أبي "???

Both are acceptable abati and abee read surah yusuf verse 4 perhaps its more faseeh more eloquent and also read surah luqmaan because Luqmaan called his son Yaa Bunayah is instead of say yaa ibnee Allaah Alam
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marwen
10-01-2012, 05:24 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
لا شك في إنا خير الأمة لأن رسولنا صلي الله عليه و سلم هو خير ألرسول
Excelent ! sister;but it needs a slight correction : (the parts in red are incorrect)
لا شك في إنا خير الأمة لأن رسولنا صلي الله عليه و سلم هو خير ألرسول
==> correct version :
لا شك في أنا خير أمة لأن رسولنا صلي الله عليه و سلم هو خير رسول

format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
this word is a singular third masculine person. but why it is having"ت" rather it should be "أجتمع"
As brother Muwaahid said, you need to check the subject : it may be femenine, or may be it's plural of non personal (animals, objects) (جمع غير العاقل) (example : جاءت الأسود )
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-02-2012, 07:32 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by marwen
Excelent ! sister;but it needs a slight correction : (the parts in red are incorrect)
لا شك في إنا خير الأمة لأن رسولنا صلي الله عليه و سلم هو خير ألرسول
==> correct version :
لا شك في أنا خير أمة لأن رسولنا صلي الله عليه و سلم هو خير رسول


As brother Muwaahid said, you need to check the subject : it may be femenine, or may be it's plural of non personal (animals, objects) (جمع غير العاقل) (example : جاءت الأسود )
Really really thnx brother :)
May Allah bless u with more ilam. ameen
i will correct my mistakes inshAllah. and will improve more with help of this forum :)
thnx brother muwaahid. i will study inshAllah.... so much thnx again for your kind support :P
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-02-2012, 07:34 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by WRITER
It is similar to using different words for father in English , Dad, Daddy, and Father. A non-english speaker may inquire why someone said "Daddy" and not Dad.

I believe in arabic, using أبت shows endearment.
thnx brother.plz tell me one thing: do noth the words means same?
and what other possible words are also used as father.??

format_quote Originally Posted by WRITER
لا when followed by a majzum verb means it is an imperitive sentence (an order not to do something). Just like a command (imperitive sentence ) has a majzum verb, a negative command also has a majzum verb after it.

Take the example of : لا تذهبْ laa tazhab means don't go.

When لا is followed by a marfoo verb (with damma, for example) it is a negative sentence. For example: هي لا تذهبُ (hiya laa tazhabo) means she is not going. This is a present tense negative sentence.

In these sentences a verb follows laa.

a noun may also follow laa. That is a negative nominal sentence. For example, laa waladun fil ghurfaa. There is no boy in the room.

As for maa ما it is usually used in the past tense sentence. For example, ما درستُ maa darasto, i did not study.

in addition to maa and laa, there are other words that make the sentence negative. Such as لَمْ and ليس .
لم has the same effect on the sentence as ما
That is it makes the sentence past negative. The difference is that لم is used with the present tense verb. So لم أدرس and ما درست mean the same thing: I did not study.

Another thing is that the verb after لم is majzoom (has a sukoon, for example).

Check out my Arabic course in the Arabic section, EZ arabic for beginners, that explain all of these very well.
I will check inshALLAH... thnx brother i will post my question there if i have any confusion thnx
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-02-2012, 08:15 AM
i am going:
أنا ذاهبٌ


is there any rule? by which we make it.
like it is translated as present tense: "أذهب " but u have written : "أنا ذاهبٌ "
as if i say ::
"i am doing"
"you are going"
"HE IS EATING"
Reply

Muwaahid
10-02-2012, 08:33 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by marwen
Excelent ! sister;but it needs a slight correction : (the parts in red are incorrect)
لا شك في إنا خير الأمة لأن رسولنا صلي الله عليه و سلم هو خير ألرسول
==> correct version :
لا شك في أنا خير أمة لأن رسولنا صلي الله عليه و سلم هو خير رسول



قد يمكن أن نقول أيضا: لا شك في ذلك نحن خير الأمم لان رسولنا صلى الله عليه و سلم أفضل رسول؟ يعني اسم تفضيل؟
مثلا:هو أفضل مني أو
He is more virtuous than me

أحمد أطول من زيد

Ahmad is taller than Zayd

أو حامد أفصح لغة من عبد الرزاق
وهكذا؟
or Haamid is more eloquent in speech/language than Abdir-Razaaq

and is there a form or expression we can use for khayr in ismu tafdeel? would it be akhyaar?


As brother Muwaahid said, you need to check the subject : it may be femenine, or may be it's plural of non personal (animals, objects) (جمع غير العاقل) (example : جاءت الأسود )
I remember studying ismu tafdeel in the medinah series but im not completely sure if khayr has an expression [laftz] on the wazin of ismu tafdeel.

I know Allah says,"kuntum khayra ummatan ukhrijaat lin-naas ta'muroona bil ma'roof wa tanhawna anil munkar wa tu'minoona billah....

Here Allah says we are the best of people PROVIDED that we have all these three qualities and exemplify and actualize those three qualities in our daily lives.
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-02-2012, 08:34 AM
هذا شجرة
هذا شجرته
هذا شجره
what is the difference between these three words.. as far as i know:
هذا شجرة = (this is a tree)
هذا شجرته = (this is his tree)
هذا شجره = (this is ???)

i cant guess about one thing. if a noun has a "ة " then what?an if a word containing "ة " has to become a possessive noun then what is the rule: as (his tree)=(شجرته )
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-02-2012, 09:09 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muwaahid
I remember studying ismu tafdeel in the medinah series but im not completely sure if khayr has an expression [laftz] on the wazin of ismu tafdeel.

I know Allah says,"kuntum khayra ummatan ukhrijaat lin-naas ta'muroona bil ma'roof wa tanhawna anil munkar wa tu'minoona billah....

Here Allah says we are the best of people PROVIDED that we have all these three qualities and exemplify and actualize those three qualities in our daily lives.
thanks a lot brother. Will you please gie any source of getting full topic on superlatvie and comparative adjectives.
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-02-2012, 09:24 AM
أبدي الصريح عن الرغوة
tell me the meaning of this phrase.
this is the moral lesson of a story in my course.
its meaning here is written in urdu :

"دودھ کا دودھ ،پانی کا پانی"
"Doodh ka Doodh pani ka pani"


Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-02-2012, 09:49 AM
حكي أن الثعلب مرفي السحر بشجرة فراي فوقها ديكا. فقال له :" أما تنزل نصلي جماعة. " فقال : "أن الإمام نائم خلف الشجرة فايقظه"فنظر الثعلب فراي الكلب و ولي هاربا. فناداه الديك : "أما تاتي لنصلي ." فقال :"قد انتقض وضوءي ، أصبر حتى أجددلي وضوء أوأرجع


here are my questions:

1. is it not suitable to put here "لنصلي" instead of " نصلي"
2. what is the grammar of the word " نائم" as its main word is "نوم " to sleep.
3. what is the grammar of "فنظر" ? is it the singular masculine third person from:"نظر" "he saw"?
4. what is the meaning of " ولي هاربا"?
5. what is the meaning of : أما
as far as i know it means "when" but here it doesnt make sense of it.
6. i have read it often that there is " أو" written instead of " و" , rather there is " و" suitable. explain plz.
7. what is the grammar and meaning of this word: "مرفي"??
:) have a great time :P;D
Reply

Muwaahid
10-02-2012, 06:08 PM
maybe this will make it clear insha Allah




أبدى الصريح عن
الرغوة:


هذا المثل لعبيد الله بن زياد، قاله لهانئ بن مروة
المراوي، و كان سليم بن عقيل بن أبي طالب قد استخفى عنده أيام بعثه الحسين بن عليّ،
فلما بلغ مكانه عبيد الله أرسل لهانئ فسأله فكتمه، فتوعده و خوفه، فقال هانئ حينئذ:
فإنّه عندي. عند ذلك قال عبيد الله: أبدى الصريح عن الرغوة.
Reply

Muwaahid
10-02-2012, 09:38 PM
verb chartAttachment 5098
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-03-2012, 01:25 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muwaahid
maybe this will make it clear insha Allah


أبدى الصريح عن
الرغوة:


هذا المثل لعبيد الله بن زياد، قاله لهانئ بن مروة
المراوي، و كان سليم بن عقيل بن أبي طالب قد استخفى عنده أيام بعثه الحسين بن عليّ،
فلما بلغ مكانه عبيد الله أرسل لهانئ فسأله فكتمه، فتوعده و خوفه، فقال هانئ حينئذ:
فإنّه عندي. عند ذلك قال عبيد الله: أبدى الصريح عن الرغوة.
brother i cant understand this arabic completely :) plz tell me in english :(
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-03-2012, 01:27 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muwaahid
verb chartAttachment 5098
really thanx it is really really helpful. very kind of u :)
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-03-2012, 11:27 AM
another question:
why do not full stops and commas occur in arabic? it is usually present only at the end of paragraph. or story. i want to ask, is there will be any matter if i put a full stop or comma at the end of a sentence when its sense is completed :) ???

my previous questions are not answered yet ... :(:'(:'(:'(:'(:mad::mad::mad::unhappy:
Reply

marwen
10-05-2012, 08:34 PM
I’m sorry for the late post (I didn’t have time to check the forum in the previous days).

format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
i am going:
أنا ذاهبٌ


is there any rule? by which we make it.
like it is translated as present tense: "أذهب " but u have written : "أنا ذاهبٌ "
as if i say ::
"i am doing"
"you are going"
"HE IS EATING"
‘ذاهبٌ’ is called ‘اسم فاعل’, infact it’s not a verb, it’s like a gerund in english (e.g : going). For each verb we can construct the corresponding ‘ismul-faa’il’ (اسم فاعل) which in most cases is in the form/wazn "فاعل " for simple verbs (فعل) (ذاهب,ساجد,قائم....) but it could have other forms too (it depends on the type of the verb). Ismul-faa’il informs about the profession of the subject (حاكم, قاضي ,) or about the state of the subject (نائم , جالس , )

Another point : the type of the sentence : أنا ذاهبٌ " " is called ‘جملة اسمية’ (Noun-based sentence ) . Grammatically, the function of (أنا) is 'اسم' (main subject) and (ذاهبٌ) is a' خبر' (a noun or a structure that informs about the (state of) the subject(or اسم) )

In arabic there is 2 types of sentences :
  1. Verb-based sentence (that is a sentence that is constructed around a verb) : it’s known when the sentence contains a verb.
A verb based sentence is in the form : VERB+SUBJECT+OBJECT (the order may change), where the subject and the object are 2 nouns.

A verb-based sentence tells about an action (a verb). Its used in general in a narrative style of texts, where you are telling about a succession of events (historical texts, informative texts, or essays).
  1. Noun-Based sentence (a sentence that is constructed around a subject) : it’s known when the sentence contains no verbs (only contains nouns or other nominal structures).
    A noun-based sentence is in the form :
SUBJECT+[NOUN or GERUND or ADJECTIVE, etc.]
Where the main subject is called ‘مبتدأ’ (mubtada’) and the other part is called ‘خبر’ (khabar : information about the mubtada’)
Noun-based sentences are used in texts containing descriptions (like novels, stories, poems, etc.)

format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
هذا شجرة
هذا شجرته
هذا شجره
what is the difference between these three words.. as far as i know:
هذا شجرة = (this is a tree)
هذا شجرته = (this is his tree)
هذا شجره = (this is ???)

i cant guess about one thing. if a noun has a "ة " then what?an if a word containing "ة " has to become a possessive noun then what is the rule: as (his tree)=(شجرته )
You’re quite correct sister. Except one little thing is that شجرة is in arabic a femenine noun (مؤنث) so we have to use هذه instead of هذا.
è
هذه شجرة = (this is a tree)
هذه شجرته = (this is his tree)

Concerning the last term (هذا شجره) : (that’s a little bit complex :p)
The plural of (شجرة) is (أشجار) which is the plural of a non personal object, and has a femenine gender (يجمع على التأنيث) : هذه أشجار
But there is another type of plural called ‘اسم الجمع’ (ismul-jam3) : It is used when you treat a number of objects as a whole (as one thing). It has a masculine gender, examples :
هذا جند كثير
هذا جيش عظيم

So, Ismul-jam3 is a noun of one thing that is composed of many elements.
è *(شجر) is ismul-jam3 for (شجرة ),
(هذا شجره) = this is his property of trees.





format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
أبدي الصريح عن الرغوة
tell me the meaning of this phrase.
this is the moral lesson of a story in my course.
its meaning here is written in urdu :

"دودھ کا دودھ ،پانی کا پانی"
"Doodh ka Doodh pani ka pani"


When ancient arabs used to milk camels, there is a thin layer of foam (الرغوة ) on the top of the milk. So when you move the foam you find the ‘true’ milk (اللّبن الصريح), sot hey say : بدى اللّبن الصريح عن الرغوة *à which means*: «*the true milk appeared (from) under the foam.
And later, the expression became used figuratively, when you want someone to tell the truth and stop saying lies and empty talks, you say : أبدي الصريح عن الرغوة (go directly to the topic, tell the truth and stop empty talks)


format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
حكي أن الثعلب مرفي السحر بشجرة فراي فوقها ديكا. فقال له :" أما تنزل نصلي جماعة. " فقال : "أن الإمام نائم خلف الشجرة فايقظه"فنظر الثعلب فراي الكلب و ولي هاربا. فناداه الديك : "أما تاتي لنصلي ." فقال :"قد انتقض وضوءي ، أصبر حتى أجددلي وضوء أوأرجع

here are my questions:
1. is it not suitable to put here "لنصلي" instead of نصلي"".
2. what is the grammar of the word " نائم" as its main word is "نوم " to sleep.
3. what is the grammar of "فنظر" ? is it the singular masculine third person from:"نظر" "he saw"?
4. what is the meaning of " ولي هاربا"?
5. what is the meaning of : أما
as far as i know it means "when" but here it doesnt make sense of it.
6. i have read it often that there is " أو" written instead of " و" , rather there is " و" suitable. explain plz.
7. what is the grammar and meaning of this word: "مرفي"?? have a great time :P
1.
Exactly, the normal form of the sentence should be (أما تنزل لنصلي) where the (ل) is used for explanation or to mention the cause. But sometimes the (ل) can be omitted and I think it’s here used to mark a figure of style (للبلاغة : for eloquence). In arabic, when you can say what you want with less words/letters, it’s recommended that you do, it helps to be more concise and eloquent.

2.
الإمام نائم (جملة اسمية مبتدؤها ' الإمام ' و خبرها 'نائم' )
  • The nature of the word (نائم) is ismu faa’il (اسم فاعل), and it’s function in this sentence is (خبر) ‘khabar’
3.
what is the grammar of "فنظر" ? is it the singular masculine third person from:"نظر" "he saw"?
Yes, correct. The verb ‘نظر’ is conjugated with the singular masculine 3rd person (in the past tense). The (ف) is used for conjunction (حرف عطف) with the previous sentence.

4.
ولي هاربا = he went running
(ولّى) = (ذهب) = (went)
(هاربا) = (running) [Verb. هرب = run]

5.
أما
ما : is used for negation (not).
أ : is used for interrogation.

أما تاتي لنصلي* = wouldn’t you come to pray*?

6.
أو = OR
و = AND

7.
(مرفي)* è there must be some space missed in this spell. It shoul be written*: مرّ في
مرّ = he passed
في = in (or ‘at’)
(مرّ في السّحر) = he passed/walked at the night (before daybreak)


format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
why do not full stops and commas occur in arabic? it is usually present only at the end of paragraph. or story. i want to ask, is there will be any matter if i put a full stop or comma at the end of a sentence when its sense is completed ???
No. In modern arabic, full stops and commas are used, like any other language.
May be you are referring to classic texts.



I hope I didn’t forget other questions.
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-06-2012, 08:38 AM
Akhee ul Azeez :)
you have clarified my so common and important confusions :D
JazakAllah ul Khair brother.
that's all are really helpful for me :P
just one thing again to confirm.
if any essay in my text does not include full stop or comma, then if i put full stop or comma where they are suitable then my marks will be safe or not :phew
Reply

marwen
10-06-2012, 09:42 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by seeking_hidayat
if any essay in my text does not include full stop or comma, then if i put full stop or comma where they are suitable then my marks will be safe or not
Yeah, certainly ! If you mark the end of each sentence with a full stop, and use other punctuation like commas etc. this will make your text more readable and easy to understand, and will make your marks better. It's also better to use short and simple sentences in your essays at the beginning, this will lessen your chances to make mistakes, then when you master it, you can use longer sentences. Anyway, you should stop caring about marks :p : Just try to learn and take your time to revise what you saw and to practice, and then good marks will come automatically :) .
Reply

Bint-e-Adam
10-08-2012, 08:07 AM
inshAllah :)
akhee, i am confused .
as there are five books only in M.A part 1.
and there are lots of things in there.
as poetry: i have to explain every verse of poetry in my own words containing 10-15 marks. :(
as essays:i have to write an essay on any topic in my own words :(
as question and answer: to write each answer in my own wordings that is not written even in my books :(
a lot of things like it. i am confused that how will i write in Arabic like this. and i have only 1 year for it.
and my Arabic so far is in front of u :D plz tell me the tips and advices to learn how to write anything in my own words in Arabic :( :( :cry:
Reply

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