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truthseeker63
12-04-2012, 04:21 PM
As-Salamu Alaykum my questin is If a non muslim commits a crime that is punished by sharia and the person says shahada does this mean they can't ever be punished ?
saying Shahadah all previous sins are wiped away does this mean that a person who commited adultery or zina






well can this be proven that they still are punished ?



i meant like evidence if the person still confessed to the crime or was caught ?


what he commited zina ?


before



shahada



or homosexuality



or was a murderer



stealing




Also
when the Muslims conquered non muslim land in the 7th century when was the penal code carried out what i mean is what about people who commited crimes that sharia penal code says is wrong but they commited it before the non muslim land was conquered
even if they had a diffrent law before ? My last question is
is everyone stoned today in muslim nations do they always have 4 witnessess ?


It must be noted that individuals, groups and countries have perpetrated great crimes in the name of Islam and in the name of Sharia law. Men women and children have been condemned to death without the benefit of the strict evidence standards demanded by the Sharia.

http://www.islamreligion.com/articles/3313/
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جوري
12-04-2012, 05:42 PM
being Muslim doesn't preclude one from being punished for a crime. We're not exempt simply for saying shahada.. in fact punishment itself is an expiation of sins.. Jews/Christians have their own courts only per their personal matters not what affects the state as a whole as far as I am concerned and in other words Jewish inheritance laws or divorce laws or charity laws differ from those Islamic and thus that is where their courts would play a role. No more no less!

and Allah swt knows best.
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truthseeker63
12-04-2012, 06:48 PM
Correct me If Im wrong but Murder does have blood money correct ? Anyway I did find this on Islam q and a. Can anyone explain it ?

He committed zinaa then he became Muslim; should he be subjected to the punishment?

If a kaafir commits zinaa (unlawful sexual intercourse)
then he becomes Muslim, should the hadd punishment be carried out on him?

Praise be to Allaah.
If a dhimmi (Jew or Christian living under the protection of the Islamic state) commits zinaa then becomes Muslim, and there is evidence to prove that he did commit zinaa, the hadd punishment is no longer to be applied to him; he should not be punished by either hadd (punishment specified in sharee’ah) or ta’zeer (punishment to be specified by the qaadi or Muslim judge in a particular case). This was the view of al-Shaafa'i, based on the aayah (interpretation of the meaning):
“Say to those who have disbelieved, if they cease (from disbelief), their past will be forgiven” (al-Anfaal 8:38).
He also quoted as evidence the hadeeth of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him):
“Islam wipes out whatever came before it.” (Narrated by Muslim from ‘Amr ibn al-‘Aas).
The Qur’aan also states that the punishment for a thief or bandit is no longer applicable if they repent, so this reprieve is more applicable in the case of a kaafir (who becomes Muslim). Moreover, enforcing the punishment would put people off Islam. This is the same reason which is given by scholars for stating that a person who enters Islam does not have to make up the prayers that he has missed. And Allaah knows best.

Fataawa al-Imaam al-Nawawi, 223

http://islamqa.info/en/ref/8895
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truthseeker63
12-04-2012, 07:26 PM
The second has also been preserved by Imam Muslim. He reports Ibn 'Abbas, may Allah be pleased with him, as saying that some people of the pagans had committed many murders and had indulged in excessive adultery in the days of ignorance (that is prior to the appearance of the Prophet ). They came to the Prophet and said: 'What you offer, and call us to is quite appealing. But if you could only let us know if there is the possibility of atonement for our previous sins'. Allah, glorified be He, then revealed the verse "(The true servants of Allah are those) who do not call upon another god with Allah, who do not slay the soul Allah has forbidden, save by right, and do not adulterate. And whosoever does that, he shall(surely) meet the price of sin." (Al-Furqan:68). Allah also revealed: "Tell them, O My slaves who have wronged their souls: 'Do not despair of Allah's mercy.' " (Al-Zumar:53).

http://www.themodernreligion.com/basic/repent1.html

The Prophet Muhammad (Sallallaahu ‘alayhi Wassallam) said, “Islam wipes out all the past sins of a person.” Once a person asked the Prophet (Sallallaahu ‘alayhi Wassallam), “In my past life (as a non-Muslim) I was guilty of many a trespasses and acts of lewdness; would I be forgiven?” He said, “Didn’t you know that Islam wipes out the past?”

http://www.askimam.org/public/question_detail/17628

Jahiliyyah (Arabic: جاهلية‎ ǧāhiliyyah/jāhilīyah "ignorance") is an Islamic concept of "ignorance of divine guidance" or "the state of ignorance of the guidance from God"[1] or "Days of Ignorance"[2] referring to the condition in which Arabs found themselves in pre-Islamic Arabia, i.e. prior to the revelation of the Quran to Muhammad.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jahiliyyah
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truthseeker63
02-10-2013, 07:23 AM
Please reply.
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