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*charisma*
02-28-2013, 01:10 PM
Assalamu Alaikum

I read a hadith (I will post soon Inshallah) stating that if the mu'azzin can be heard (without speakers), then the muslim should pray his obligatory prayers at the mosque.

What is the case these days when a lot of the mosques (even in islamic countries) play the adhan through speakers? Is a muslim therefore excused from praying at the mosque and allowed to do his obligatory prayers at home?

I could not find anything on this topic

Can someone clarify this for me please, jazakum allahu khair.

EDIT:

Also if there's any clarifications on what is considered "'urf" as highlighted and stated in the fatwa below.

Here's are the parts of fatwa regarding my question:

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Prayer in congregation is obligatory for those who live close to the mosque, not for those who live far away.

The Sunnah describes those who are regarded as living close to the mosque as being those who can hear the call to prayer.

What is meant is those who can hear the call to prayer from the mosque with no amplification of the muezzins’s voice , when the muezzin raises his voice, and there is no wind or noise etc to interfere with hearing it.

Muslim (653) narrated that Abu Hurayrah said: A blind man came to the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) and said, “O Messenger of Allaah, I do not have anyone to guide me to the mosque,” and he asked the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) to grant him a concession allowing him to pray in his house, and he granted him that. Then when he turned to leave, he called him back and said, “Can you hear the call to prayer?” He said, “Yes.” He said, “Then respond to it.”

Ibn Maajah (793) narrated from Ibn ‘Abbaas that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: “Whoever hears the call to prayer and does not respond, there is no prayer for him (i.e., his prayer is not valid), except for the one who has an excuse.” Classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Jaami’, 637.

Al-Nawawi (may Allaah have mercy on him) said in al-Majmoo’, 4/353:

What is meant by hearing the call to prayer is when the muezzin stands at the edge of the town and other sounds are silent and the wind is still, and one is listening out. If a person can hear him, he is obliged (to attend prayers in congregation), and if he cannot hear him then he is not obliged.

Shaykh Ibn ‘Uthaymeen was asked:

Is there any definition of the distance between one’s house and the mosque?

He replied:

There is no specific distance defined in sharee’ah, rather that depends on ‘urf (custom) or the distance within which the adhaan can be heard without a microphone.

As’ilah al-Baab al-Maftooh, question no. 700.

Shaykh Ibn Baaz said:

The one who can hear the call to prayer given in a regular voice without amplification is obliged to respond and to come and pray in congregation in the mosque in which the call is given…

But for those who live far away from the mosque and cannot hear the call to prayer except with amplification do not have to come to the mosque. They and those who are with them may pray in a separate congregation. If they take the trouble to attend the prayer with the congregation in the mosque whose call to prayer they cannot hear except with amplification because they are too far away, that will bring them a greater reward.

Majmoo’ Fataawa al-Shaykh Ibn Baaz (may Allaah have mercy on him), 12/58.


SOURCE
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fi aman Allah
w'salaam
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Abu Loren
03-01-2013, 03:06 AM
The answer is there in what you've posted. :peace:
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facethetruth
09-03-2013, 05:47 PM
It is related to the distance, some scholars said the distance of 9 houses or something like that. It is the distance that you could hear somebody calling the adtha without speakers.
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