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Khaled hijazi
04-24-2015, 09:32 PM

Islam means “submission /surrender to the will of God” ...

Mark 3:35
35 Whoever ( does God’s will ) is (my brother) ”

Jesus & Muslims Brothers In faith :statisfie


and Jesus fell on his face and prayed
mathew 26:38
" he fell with his face to the ground and prayed ( ...
* Yet not as I will, but as you will. ) ”


*Note : Insha'Allah or Inshallah, is Arabic for "God willing" or "if Allah wills" . this phrase is used when discussing events which are planned for the future, in recognition that they will only happen by God's will.

Your God is one and only God (Al-Anbiya : 108)


Neither Muhammad PBUH nor Jesus PBUH came to change the basic doctrine of the belief in one God, brought by earlier prophets, but rather to confirm and renew it . Jesus teaches the unity of Allah; the oneness of God.

Mark 12:29

29 “The most important one,” answered Jesus, “is this: ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one.
...
32 “Well said, teacher,” the man replied. “You are right in saying that God is one and there is no other but him.
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Traditio
07-08-2015, 12:28 AM
These sorts of claims amaze me as a Catholic. There is no reasonable basis to believe what you are saying. Even if you tell me that your prophet said and wrote such things, we're talking about a man who lived hundreds of years after the fact. Take off your Islam-hat (so to speak) off for a moment and consider the matter simply as a reasonable human being: who is a more reliable witness? Someone who lived hundreds of years after the fact, or else, someone who actually witnessed the events?

The claim that Jesus did not come to "change things," so to speak, to introduce new doctrines, to "start a religion," so to speak, etc...the sacrifice of the mass stands as roughly a 2000 year testimony against what you are saying.

You may or may not accuse the Bible of being full of interpolations (which claim is, let us note, not even a Muslim innovation; such have barked all of the sectarians throughout the centuries; St. Augustine tells us in, e.g., the Confessions that the Manicheans spoke likewise...and yet, I ask, in the same spirit of the Confessions: where are the unaltered copies? Not even your prophet claims to have laid eyes upon one. But fine: tell me that the Bible is full of interpolations, and it is for this reason that the New Testament (which, St. Thomas Aquinas in the Summa Contra Gentiles) tells us, your prophet forbids Muslims from reading, precisely for the reason that the Old and New Testaments contradict the Islamic prophet on every page). Even so, how can you cast doubt on the unbroken succession of Catholic bishops and their magisterial authority, on the Sacred Tradition that they have transmitted for 2000 years? How can you cast doubt on the ancient rite of the Catholic mass and the eucharist?

You tell me that Jesus introduced no new doctrines. But each time I attend mass, I hear the words of Jesus, as all Catholics ever have since Our Lord introduced the sacrament: "Take this, all of you, and eat it. This is my body...Take this, all of you, and drink of it: this is the chalice of my blood..."
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Traditio
07-08-2015, 12:31 AM
Above, I wrote:

"But fine: tell me that the Bible is full of interpolations, and it is for this reason that the New Testament (which, St. Thomas Aquinas in the Summa Contra Gentiles) tells us, your prophet forbids Muslims from reading, precisely for the reason that the Old and New Testaments contradict the Islamic prophet on every page)."

I realize now that I failed to complete my thought aferwards that I messed that up. That should read:

"But fine: tell me that the Bible is full of interpolations, and it is for this reason that the New Testament (which, St. Thomas Aquinas in the Summa Contra Gentiles, tells us, your prophet forbids Muslims from reading, precisely for this reason, namely that the Old and New Testaments contradict the Islamic prophet on every page) testifies to the divinity of Our Lord."
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MuslimInshallah
07-08-2015, 10:36 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Traditio
Even if you tell me that your prophet said and wrote such things, we're talking about a man who lived hundreds of years after the fact. Take off your Islam-hat (so to speak) off for a moment and consider the matter simply as a reasonable human being: who is a more reliable witness? Someone who lived hundreds of years after the fact, or else, someone who actually witnessed the events?
Greetings Traditio,

(smile) Actually, Muslims believe that the words of the Qur'an are God's Words. Therefore, the question would be more: would you take any human assertions over God's Words? You ask about unaltered copies of the New Testament... (smile) but this is exactly the point Muslims make to Christians: there are no unaltered copies. But you see, the Qur'an is the original version. Which is why we give it more weight that the New Testament.

As for the rest of your post... it is a little hard to follow your thought. You claim that that the Prophet Mohammed (May God Bless him) forbade Muslims from reading the New Testament (?). But Muslims have a long history of reading both the Old and the New Testaments. I have never heard of anyone being forbidden to read them. So I think that if Thomas Aquinas stated this, that he was mistaken. (smile) Actually, quite a few Muslims read them in an attempt to understand Christians in order to be able to converse with them better. (smile) And they will quote the Bible to Christians, as did the OP.

(smile) You see, when we come from different backgrounds, we sometimes have trouble correctly understanding one another. (smile) I'm sure that the things you wrote in your post make a lot of sense to you, but many Muslims would be puzzled. (smile) I would suggest, if you want to be able to discuss ideas with Muslims, that you try reading a translation of the Qur'an (I recommend Yahya Emerick's extended study version; it has many footnotes that can help a Christian understand the Islamic worldview). (smile) Translations are not perfect, as they reflect the translators understandings of the text, and no translator can fully capture the original. But it does help to be able to converse with Muslims.

Finally, these days, the word "Muslim" has become somewhat of a label, and it's deeper meanings may be obscured. However, the word Muslim originally meant "someone who strives to surrender to God's Will". It also means someone who is at peace, is safe, is free. (smile) Because when we surrender to His Will, we find inner peace, safety from both bad behaviour and from it's consequences in the Next life, and the freedom that comes from relying on God alone. Therefore, because Jesus (May God Bless him) was a person who surrended himself to God's Will... he was, by definition, a Muslim.


May God, the Almighty and Compassionate Creator, Help us to better understand one another as we struggle to understand (and implement) His Will.
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Traditio
07-08-2015, 07:15 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by MuslimInshallah
Greetings Traditio,
Greetings, ma'am. :)

(smile) Actually, Muslims believe that the words of the Qur'an are God's Words. Therefore, the question would be more: would you take any human assertions over God's Words?
No, I fully understand the sentiment. "The Quran says this. The Islamic prophet was God's personal transcriptionist when he wrote it. Therefore, God says x, y and z. Among these things are that Jesus was so and so."

If the OP claimed nothing more than: "Muslims, insofar as they are muslims, must believe x, y and z about Jesus," then I would fully assent.

The problem is twofold: 1. he brings in the Jewish and Christian scriptures which do not agree with Islamic doctrine. But, of course, you will tell me: they would agree, if only we had our hands on the uninterpolated versions [which, conveniently, do not exist at present, nor is there any record of such documents/manuscripts]. 2. These doctrines, insofar as they stand, are...no offense intended...completely worthless if the question is an historical matter of fact (at least, to someone, such as myself, who is not a part of the Islamic tradition). Once again, I pray you, try to think, not as a Muslim, but as a reasonable human being. For any historical matter of fact, what standards of evidence do you normally apply? I'll give you a hint: "A book, written hundreds of years after the fact, by someone who neither was an eye witness nor knew any eye witnesses" probably falls short. Way short. Like, nobody would seriously consider that evidence unless they have a horse in the race. Imho, this is right up there with the scientologists believing what they do about aliens because their books (written by a science fiction author) say so.

And here, I pray, do not take offense, for none is intended. I simply wish for you to understand what this looks like from the outside. As an outsider, would you ever accept a scientologist saying: "But our doctrines about aliens must be true; the great prophet L. Ron Hubbard has informed us thusly in these books of ours"? Of course not. You would, of course, accept the testimony of astronauts and scientists, but not of L. Ron Hubbard. You must understand, then, that I, who am outside of the tradition, find myself reasoning, as any reasonable person must, in the following way:

This religious leader, who "had a horse in the race," so to speak, who was not an eye witness, who did not know any eye witnesses, and who lived hundreds of years after the fact, made such and such claims about historical matters of fact. His testimony flatly contradicts the testimony of eye witnesses. You'll deny that I have an eye witnesses. I'll answer that the Catholic Mass has existed for roughly 2000 years and stretches all the way back to Jesus and the apostles. Why does it stretch so far back? Because the apostles themselves claimed to have witnessed the following: they saw a man, whom they hung out with on an intimate basis for 3 year, die on a cross.They subsequently claimed that when they visited his tomb 3 days later, wherein they previous had witnessed his body, the tomb was empty. Further, they claim, that very same man, having died on a cross and risen on the third day, appeared to them on numerous instances over a period of several weeks, and imparted to them all sorts of teachings. This very same man, they say, they witnessed rising into heaven at the end of this period, claiming that he would be back later at some point.

"But why," we might ask them, "have you and your successors been celebrating this ancient rite, the Holy Mass, and offering up the Holy Eucharist for all of these years? Why have you been doing this ever since Jesus died? Why have you imparted these things to your successors, the bishops of the Catholic Church, the unbroken succession of whom stretches all the way from the present day all the way back to the time of Jesus himself?" "Because," they will answer us, "on the night before that very same man died, in celebration of the passover (signifying that He should be our paschal sacrifice), he took bread and wine, said these very words and commanded us to do likewise. It happened. We saw it. We were there."

"This is the chalice of my blood. This is the blood of the new and everlasting convenant. It will be shed for you and for many for the forgiveness of sins. Do this in memory of me."

There are, of course, two legitimate options:

1. The testimony of the eye witnesses is true. If you believe that, then you must be a Catholic.
2. The testminony of the eye witnesses is not true. They either were deceived, or else, they made it up. Atheists say this all the time. Given the extraordinary nature of the claims, I can understand why they would have recourse to this option.

But what is not a legitimate, reasonable option is to say: "That's not true; this other thing, reported to us by someone who lived hundreds of years after the fact who never saw the man (whom Catholics claim is God), and doesn't even claim to have seen the man, is true." There is absolutely no warrant to believe that. It plainly flies in the face of all reasonable standards of evidence. And will you claim, I ask you, that there have been interpolations, not only in the Holy Bible, but also in the Apostolic tradition? Then show me, I say, a period in time in which the Catholic Faith taught otherwise, a period of time in which the bishops of the Church did not hand on these very teachings. You can't? That's because no such time exists. That is the faith that has been handed down to us, generation after generation, from Jesus, to his apostles, to their successors, and so on, all the way to the present day.

In other words, if I may quote St. Augustine, "I would not even believe in Jesus Christ Himself, nor in the gospel, unless the Catholic Church had commanded me to believe."

By all secular standards of reasonableness and historical credibility, your prophet, I am afraid, is not credible.

You ask about unaltered copies of the New Testament... (smile) but this is exactly the point Muslims make to Christians: there are no unaltered copies.
How convenient. Then, pray tell, can you tell me of anyone who has ever seen unaltered copies? Can you show me any historical records which indicate that such documents have ever existed?


As for the rest of your post... it is a little hard to follow your thought. You claim that that the Prophet Mohammed (May God Bless him) forbade Muslims from reading the New Testament (?). But Muslims have a long history of reading both the Old and the New Testaments. I have never heard of anyone being forbidden to read them.
I have in mind what St. Thomas Aquinas writes in Summa Contra Gentiles, book 1, chapter 6:

"Nor do divine pronouncements on the part of preceding prophets offer him any witness. On the contrary, he perverts almost all the testimonies of the Old and New Testaments by making them into fabrications of his own, as can be seen by anyone who examines his law. It was, therefore, a shrewd decision on his part to forbid his followers to read the Old and New Testaments, lest these books convict him of falsity."

St. Thomas Aquinas was in error?

Actually, quite a few Muslims read them in an attempt to understand Christians in order to be able to converse with them better. (smile) And they will quote the Bible to Christians, as did the OP.
I've read about these practices. Muslim practice is to cherry pick (just as, but even worse than, the protestants) and find contentious verses to dispute with and confuse Christians.

(smile) You see, when we come from different backgrounds, we sometimes have trouble correctly understanding one another. (smile) I'm sure that the things you wrote in your post make a lot of sense to you, but many Muslims would be puzzled. (smile) I would suggest, if you want to be able to discuss ideas with Muslims, that you try reading a translation of the Qur'an (I recommend Yahya Emerick's extended study version; it has many footnotes that can help a Christian understand the Islamic worldview). (smile) Translations are not perfect, as they reflect the translators understandings of the text, and no translator can fully capture the original. But it does help to be able to converse with Muslims.
Madam, I don't expect to be able to converse with you on Christian grounds, just as you can't expect to converse with me on Islamic grounds. These are sets of presuppositions that we do not share. Nonetheless, I have faith that you and I can converse on the basis of human reason, for do we not both share this in common? :)

Finally, these days, the word "Muslim" has become somewhat of a label, and it's deeper meanings may be obscured. However, the word Muslim originally meant "someone who strives to surrender to God's Will". It also means someone who is at peace, is safe, is free. (smile) Because when we surrender to His Will, we find inner peace, safety from both bad behaviour and from it's consequences in the Next life, and the freedom that comes from relying on God alone. Therefore, because Jesus (May God Bless him) was a person who surrended himself to God's Will... he was, by definition, a Muslim.
Yeah, I think that's basically where the OP started going, and had he started and ended there, then I think that the point wouldn't have been worth disputing. If "Muslim" means "someone who surrenders to the will of God," and not "someone who believes in Islamic doctrine," then I think that we find something similar even in the Christian scriptures:

"Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:But emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men, and in habit found as a man. He humbled himself, becoming obedient unto death, even to the death of the cross. For which cause God also hath exalted him, and hath given him a name which is above all names:That in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those that are in heaven, on earth, and under the earth: And that every tongue should confess that the Lord Jesus Christ is in the glory of God the Father" (Phillipians 2:6-11). Again, we see this in Jesus' sorrowful passion and death on the cross.

As I said, if that was simply the only point, that Jesus submitted himself to the Divine Will, then there's probably a sense in which that's true, and any sense in which it's not true isn't worth discussing on an Islamic forum. We simply don't have the common ground for me to persuade you otherwise. This, however, is the part of the OP that inspired my disagreement:

"Neither Muhammad PBUH nor Jesus PBUH came to change the basic doctrine of the belief in one God, brought by earlier prophets, but rather to confirm and renew it . Jesus teaches the unity of Allah; the oneness of God."

In the sense that the OP intended those words, that's simply not true.

May God, the Almighty and Compassionate Creator, Help us to better understand one another as we struggle to understand (and implement) His Will.
Amen.
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Traditio
07-08-2015, 07:25 PM
In fact, may I add, we see similar things in the first chapter of Luke with respect to the Most Blessed Mother. Consider, e.g., her fiat (Luke 1:38) and magnificat (Luke 1:46-55).
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BelieverOfTruth
07-08-2015, 09:09 PM
Dear Khaled Hijazi,

It is ironic that you quote Bible verses from a Bible you believe to have been corrupted to "prove" that Jesus was not God. But I am glad you did. Christians do not claim that God is not one, in fact they claim that God IS one. More specifically, Christians claim that God is three parts that make up the one. How is this possible you may ask? You yourself have a physical body, a mind, and a spirit - you are three! That does not make you three separate entities, but three-in-one. Similarly, God can be viewed in this way also, he is the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, all three are inseparable and work in perfect unity. So there are no grumbles with the verses in the Bible that say that God is one, because we fully believe that.

With regard to your second quote from the Bible (you were one verse out, but I'll forgive you :) ), how Jesus fell face first to the ground and prayed - this does not prove in any way whatsoever that he was a Muslim. In face, his prayer was not very Islamic at all - referring to God as His "Father", not something a Muslim would do. It was a personal prayer and not a recitation, very un-Muslim-like!

And finally, your first quote - Jesus stated that the people around him were his brothers (and sisters, and mother), very simply, this is to demonstrate the kind of relationship that He and the Father have with us - not that we are equal to him, but that he loves us as he would love his brother or mother, that we are to engage in a personal relationship with Him and God the Father. This teaching is alien to a Muslim.

I look forward to your reply.

Kind Regards

Tom
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Traditio
07-08-2015, 09:22 PM
It is ironic that you quote Bible verses from a Bible you believe to have been corrupted to "prove" that Jesus was not God. But I am glad you did. Christians do not claim that God is not one, in fact they claim that God IS one. More specifically, Christians claim that God is three parts that make up the one.
This is not Christian teaching; we don't believe that God is made up of parts. This would violate the ineffable simplicity and unity of God. What Christians believe is that God is 1 in substance/essence/being, but nonetheless, is 3 (in terms of persons). The way that St. Augustine (and, after him, St. Thomas Aquinas) explain this is that the three persons of the Most Blessed Trinity are subsisting relationships. The category of relation, note, adds no additional being or intrinsic formal content to the essence or substance a thing. Consider, for example, what "fatherhood" adds to a father.
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BelieverOfTruth
07-08-2015, 09:37 PM
No, this IS Christian teaching, it is not Islamic teaching though of course. I believe that God is not simplistic as you say, He is incredibly complex, and part of God's complexities and beauties is His Triune of His Godhead. It does not take away from the fact that He is still one, nor does it make him inferior.

The very fact that he is three (as well as one), means that he can be Love whilst also being self-sufficient. Allah, because of his unicity, can not be Love as that would require him to be sufficient on another being, and that is why many Muslim scholars do not believe one of his characteristics to be Love.
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Traditio
07-08-2015, 09:40 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by BelieverOfTruth
No, this IS Christian teaching, it is not Islamic teaching though of course.
I'm a Catholic, not a Muslim.

I believe that God is not simplistic as you say, He is incredibly complex, and part of God's complexities and beauties is His Triune of His Godhead. It does not take away from the fact that He is still one, nor does it make him inferior.
Note, I said "simple," not "simplistic." Complexity implies a real diversity of parts. That means that God is "put together," so to speak, and needs something to "hold him together," so to speak. That would mean that God isn't God. A triune God is Christian teaching. A God made up of real parts is not Christian teaching. It does not cohere with the Catholic tradition.
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BelieverOfTruth
07-08-2015, 09:52 PM
Sorry, it's late and I didn't read your reply properly. I fully agree with you on this issue! Apologies! :)
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Traditio
07-08-2015, 10:02 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by BelieverOfTruth
Sorry, it's late and I didn't read your reply properly. I fully agree with you on this issue! Apologies! :)
Fair enough. One final point: your image of the body, soul and spirit (whatever that is) composition is a poor image of the Christian God. What you are saying is: "Here are these three things which are put together and 'act together' as one thing." That's simply not true of God. The best way of understanding the trinity is primarily negative:

The Father is God. The Son is God. The Holy Spirit is God.
The Father is not the Son is not the Holy Ghost.
There is only one God.

In order to do more than dance around what this means in words, you would have to see God face to face and "understand" or "see" the reality for yourself. And even then, you won't fully understand it. In other words: make sure that you pray much, have frequent recourse to the sacraments of the Church and live a holy life.

Because the sight of that most sacred mystery, I say, would be enough (infinitely enough, in fact) to fill the soul with immeasurable joy forever.
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Muhammad
07-09-2015, 03:42 AM
Greetings,

You two, as well as your Christian brethren, cannot even agree with each other on the nature of your own God, so there is no need to come and debate with us about what Jesus said and did when you cannot even get the most fundamental issue right.

Moreover, you lay claim to 'eyewitnesses' and speak of historical credibility. Let us remember that the gospels are not eyewitness accounts. According to the majority of bible scholars, Mark was written somewhere between 65 and 75 CE, Matthew and Luke were written around 80 -85 CE; John is dead last, 90-95 CE. Moreover, the actual authors of these gospels are unknown. It was only editors/translators who added the title: 'the gospel according to... Mark/Matthew/Luke/John'. It should also be pointed out that there is more historical documentation of Prophet Muhammad :saws: than there is of Jesus :as:. Muslims follow the Prophet Muhammad :saws: as much as they can in terms of how he ate, slept, walked, spoke, cleaned his teeth... his life and example have been documented in incredible detail and precision. His teachings remain alive in the hearts and minds of over a billion of our faithful worldwide. This attention to intricate detail of how all the teachings were preserved and transmitted is something unique to Islam.

You also talk about 'unaltered Bibles'. Have a read of the following quoted by sister Insaanah:

Dr. J.K. Elliott, of the Department of Theology and Religious Studies at Leeds University, wrote an article published in The Times, London (10th Sept., 1987) entitled “Checking the Bible’s Roots”. In it, he stated that: “More than 5,000 manuscripts contain all or part of the New Testament in its original language. These range in date from the second century up to the invention of printing. It has been estimated that no two agree in all particulars. Inevitably, all handwritten documents are liable to contain accidental errors in copying. However, in living theological works it is not surprising that deliberate changes were introduced to avoid or alter statements that the copyist found unsound. There was also a tendency for copyists to add explanatory glosses[9]. Deliberate changes are more likely to have been introduced at an early stage before the canonical status of the New Testament was established.”

The author went on to explain that “no one manuscript contains the original, unaltered text in its entirety,” and that, “one cannot select any one of these manuscripts and rely exclusively on its text as if it contained the monopoly the original words of the original authors.”
he same principles of analysis which were applied to Bible manuscripts by Bible scholars and which exposed the flaws and changes, have been applied to Qur’aanic manuscripts gathered from around the world. Ancient manuscripts found in the Library of Congress in Washington, the Chester Beatty Museum in Dublin, Ireland, the London Museum, as well as Museums in Tashkent, Turkey and Egypt, from all periods of Islamic history, have been compared. The result of all such studies confirm that there has not been any change in the text from its original writing. For example, the “Institute fur Koranforschung” of the University of Munich, Germany, collected and collated over 42,000 complete or incomplete copies of the Qur’aan. After some fifty years of study, they reported that in terms of differences between the various copies, there were no variants, except occasional mistakes of copyists, which could easily be ascertained. The institute was destroyed by American bombs during the Second World War.
format_quote Originally Posted by Insaanah
So, 5,000 manuscripts of the Bible, and no two of them agree, 42,000 manuscripts of the Qur'an and they are all basically the same. Subhaanallah, that is a part of the miracle of the Qur'an, that it's unchanged, the same, and fully preserved, with the original message of God for all humanity.
Then you throw in the trinity. We have heard this all before:

format_quote Originally Posted by Insaanah
As soon as the word three has to enter your description of God, that oneness is lost. When Muslims say ONE, we mean ONE. No persons, no essences, nothing. Just One God, Glorified and Exalted be He above all that people associate with Him. The words two, three, four, five, seven, never enter the equation.

We have had all the analogies: the water, gas-solid-liquid one, the egg, shell-white yolk one, and also the flame-heat-light one. The three persons are distinct yet still one. I have light in my room, does that mean the roof is on fire, or that I have a flame in my room? No. Therefore light exists without any flame. I have heat in my room, does that mean something in my room is on fire? No. Heat exists without any flame. Heat and light exist by themselves separately. In the same way that Jesus (peace be on him) was created by God and was separate to God. Is the heat from a radiator in one room the same as the light from the light bulb? Nobody would walk past and say they were one. Would we say the heat of the flame is the flame? No. In the same way, we cannot and do not say that Jesus is God. Blow on a flame and it goes out. Can the existence of God be likened to such a flame? No, Glorified and Exalted be He above that.
format_quote Originally Posted by Ansar Al-'Adl
When we say that the trinity is illogical, are we trying to comprehend God's nature within our limited scope of comprehension? Is that why we cannot comprehend trinity? Or is it because of something else?

There is a distinct difference between admitting that we cannot comprehend God's nature or appearance, and attributing something to God which defies reality. Allow me to elaborate.

1 is not equal to 3 (provided that the units are consistant). Those three units cannot operate with the same properties as the one unit. If one was equal to three then it wouldn't be one. Is this a matter of attempting to comprehend God? No, it is simply a matter of defining constant values in our universe.

According to trinitarian Christianity, God sent the Son to the world. The sender and the one being sent cannot be the same. Jesus called out to God and prayed to Him. The caller and the one being called upon cannot be the same.

So the notion that there are three persons in one God, 3 in 1, is really nothing more than polytheism, because 1 God is 1 person, not three.

Now a trinitarian may argue, "Well God can do everything. Why are you placing limits on God?"

The answer is yes, God can do anything and we are not placing limits on God, BUT within the scope of reality of our universe, certain properties are real and defined. We live in a real universe, therefore, all elements within this set must be real.

Can the immortal die? A trinitarian will say, "God can do anything" but the correct answer is no, the immortal cannot die because that defies his attribute of immortality. If you die, you aren't immortal! It's not a matter of setting limits on God, its a matter of consistency in describing our universe. Can the All-Mighty be overcome? A trinitarian would say, "God can do anything" but again, this has nothing to do with God's potential.
Death and being overcome, these are not abilites they are inabilities. Death is the inability to live, therefore, the Eternal cannot die. NOT because of any lack in His potential, but because it defies His set attributes.

Moving on, trinitarians ask muslims, "you believe in the virgin birth of Christ. If you believe in the biologically impossible, why do you blame us for believing in the mathematically impossible?"

The answer is that those two beliefs are not analogous. What the trinitarian is describing as biologically impossible is still CONCEIVABLE. We can understand the notion of God placing an already fertilized zygote within Mary, or acheiving this virgin brith through some similar mechanism. When God suspends the standard laws which govern the universe, we term this a miracle. In this case, it is a biological miracle. It is conceivable because we are not bringing equality between two unequal elements. Nor are we interchanging elements of disjoint sets. In the real universe, all properties are real. in the real universe, God is One.

But trinity is not a mathematical miracle the way that the virgin birth is a biological miracle. Trinity is inconceivable. It defies the attributes that have been set in stone. When God says He is ONE, it means He is ONE. Not three. Trinity attempts to make the Eternal/immortal die. Trinity attempts to make the unequal equal.

Such things are not properties of the universe we live in. So the trinity canot be accepted by anyone because it is logically self-contradictory. Furthermore, it finds no support in the Tanakh, the New Testament, or the Qur'an.
Here are threads relating to some of the other points raised above:

http://www.islamicboard.com/comparat...t-believe.html
http://www.islamicboard.com/comparat...rs-market.html
http://www.islamicboard.com/clarific...d-prophet.html
http://www.islamicboard.com/seerah/3...e-prophet.html
http://www.islamicboard.com/discover...ml#post1588513


As it is Ramadhan, this section will be closed until after Eid. Ramadhan is a time for Muslims to reflect upon the teachings of the Qur'an and draw near to God through fasting and other acts of worship. It is not a time to engage in unnecessary debate. If you want to know the truth, then you can continue here after Ramadhan.
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Traditio
07-23-2015, 09:24 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muhammad
Greetings,

You two, as well as your Christian brethren, cannot even agree with each other on the nature of your own God, so there is no need to come and debate with us about what Jesus said and did when you cannot even get the most fundamental issue right.
Admin: are there no disagreements among Muslims? Do no Muslims misunderstand points of Islamic doctrine? If my interlocutor was mistaken, then you must not credit such mistakes to Christianity itself, nor must you think that our (at least apparent) disagreement indicates any real confusion in the doctrines of the orthodoxy (here, I do not refer to the Eastern churches who are not in communion with the Roman Pontiff, but I mean that in the general sense of the term). My [likely Protestant] interlocutor speaks from a position of ignorance. I am giving you the doctrines of the philosophers (when I speak of the divine nature), of the One Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church and of the doctors and fathers of the Church (when I speak of the plurality of the divine persons). God is one in being/substance/essence, but three in interpersonal relationships (unspeakably mysterious relationships, note, which do not divide the ineffable unity of the One God).

Do you doubt that this is the doctrine of the Church? Then I refer you to the words of the Nicene Creed: "I believe in one God."

Moreover, you lay claim to 'eyewitnesses' and speak of historical credibility. Let us remember that the gospels are not eyewitness accounts.
I wasn't referring to the gospels. I have in mind what St. Augustine says in "Against the Fundamental Epistle of Manichaeus": "I should not believe the Gospel unless the authority of the Catholic Church moved me to do so." I should have no cause to believe in Jesus or in the gospels unless the bishops of the Catholic Church, who can trace their succession in an unbroken lineage back to the apostles of Jesus Himself, had commanded me to believe on the basis of their authority. You may cast doubt on the gospels being eye witness accounts. But the apostles were eye witnesses, and I believe in the doctrines which they have handed down to us through their successors. I believe on the basis of their authority, of their account.

You have no basis, not even a probable one, for your beliefs. None. I believe based on a strong probability (i.e., the eye witnesses were credible). Your beliefs are groundless. You believe what you do because a guy said an angel spoke to him. From an outsider's perspective, do you realize how silly that sounds? If I believed everyone who has ever said that an angel spoke to him, do you know all of the ridiculous things that I would have to believe? [Though, in no respect do I wish to dissuade you from your belief in the One True God; by all means, cling to this true belief. Neither do I wish to dissuade you from ardent prayer and righteous living. Persevere in both, and pray all the more ardently.]

Your prophet commands you to believe in matters about which natural reason speaks, and he tells us no more than what we already could have known about on our own (and he commands us to believe many false things besides). It is for this reason that Averroes, a medieval philosopher in your own religious tradition, considered Islam a mere congeries of fables, of convenient lies for the masses, to control and pacify the people (a barbarous people, no less) into living at least halfway decent lives. He considered Aristotle to be a most divine and inspired man. Your prophet? Of him, as far as I know, he said no such thing. Why? Set up the words of the philosophers against the words of your prophet, and there is no contest. None.

The bishops of the Church, however, in the sobriety of their doctrine, command me to believe where reason cannot go. In fact, where reason can go, She encourages me to look and see. Your prophet throws up a veil to hide what reason can tell us. The Church takes away the veil and invites us to look. Look and see, says St. Paul (I paraphrase Romans 2): the words of the Law are written in the hearts of men. Look and see, says St. Paul (I paraphrase Romans 1): the existence and attributes of God are displayed in the works of nature. And when we have finished looking, the Church shows us even more. It is for this reason that, whereas Islam is intrinsically anti-intellectualist and stifles philosophical inquiry, many philosophers throughout the centuries have been watered and received nourishment from the Catholic Faith. For that One, True Faith, I say, points to reason, and reason points past itself to where it cannot go.

Again, why do I believe in the utter falsity of the words of your prophet? Because at mass I have heard, again and again, the words that Jesus spoke, the words that have been repeated for roughly 2000 years, the words that the apostles told us Jesus spoke:

"This is my body. It will be given up for you. This is the chalice of my blood, the blood of the new and everlasting covenent. It will be shed for you and for many for the forgiveness of sins."

And speaking thus, he commanded his apostles, the first bishops of the Catholic Church: "Do this in memory of me." If the mass is roughly 2000 years old, and if we have received it from the apostles, then your prophet is not credible, and his words are not God's words.

You also talk about 'unaltered Bibles'. Have a read of the following quoted by sister Insaanah:
You're basically just agreeing with what I said before. On the one hand, Muslims will quote from the Old and New Testaments when it is convenient for them, but then, in the same breath, will claim that the verses which disagree with them are later interpolations. And, of course, they are perfectly free from being disproven, since the original texts, they claim, the original uninterpolated versions, don't exist. This is not a tactic which is original to Islam. This was a popular tactic of the Manichean sect.

So tell me, as a Muslim, do you command me to believe the Old and New Testaments, or do you ask that I reject them? If you ask that I reject them, then why do you quote them? But if you command me to believe in the Old and New Testaments, even in part, then I'll answer you with the words of St. Augustine (De Utilitate Credendi (On the Usefulness of Belief)): you ask me to believe in the words of the Old and New Testaments, which I have received from the Catholic Church, and which I have believed on their authority, and now that I have received it from them on their authority (in which I have strong probable reasons to believe), you bid me to believe that you understand and explain it better than them based on your authority (in which I have no reason at all to trust)? But that's foolishness in the highest degree.

Had Jesus not been born of a virgin, performed miracles, died on the Cross, risen from the dead and then ascended into heaven (and, what is also amazing, assumed His Most Blessed Mother into heaven at the end of her earthly life), then I should have laughed at the bishops when they commanded me to believe that they understood the Old Testament better than the Jews. "But we saw," so said the Apostles, "this very thing happen, and here is what He told us." And the world trembled at their words and believed. Did your prophet die and rise from the dead? Or does he still lie in the grave? What public miracles did he perform that I should believe in a single word of his testimony?

But I tell you, the history of the Catholic Church has abounded in miracles even after Jesus ascended into heaven. Have you heard of the apparition of the Most Blessed Mother at Fatima? Have you heard of St. Padre Pio? How about St. Francis of Assisi? Perhaps you've heard of Our Lady at Lourdes?

Or perhaps you are familiar with the Saints of the Catholic Church, especially the more recent ones (i.e., modern era)? Their canonizations literally required miracles.

What cause have I to believe in the words of your prophet? He claimed an angel spoke to him? Have you visited an insane asylum? He wrote a book? So did L. Ron Hubbard. He raised an army? So did pretty much every tyrant who ever lived.

Show me, I say, a single piece of evidence which could only have come from God which testifies to the words of your prophet being from God.

Then you throw in the trinity. We have heard this all before:
Here, I quote the words that you quoted:

As soon as the word three has to enter your description of God, that oneness is lost. When Muslims say ONE, we mean ONE. No persons, no essences, nothing. Just One God, Glorified and Exalted be He above all that people associate with Him. The words two, three, four, five, seven, never enter the equation
The law of non-contradiction is that the same thing cannot be and not be in the same respect at the same time. Note the key words "in the same respect." If her assertion is that Christians contradict themselves, then she doesn't understand the rules of logic. If she asserts that Christian do not contradict themselves, but she denies a plurality of relations in God, then what is she doing be restating her own doctrine, without any defense or argument, and rejecting the Christian one? There's nothing compelling in that.

We have had all the analogies: the water, gas-solid-liquid one, the egg, shell-white yolk one, and also the flame-heat-light one. The three persons are distinct yet still one. I have light in my room, does that mean the roof is on fire, or that I have a flame in my room? No. Therefore light exists without any flame. I have heat in my room, does that mean something in my room is on fire? No. Heat exists without any flame. Heat and light exist by themselves separately. In the same way that Jesus (peace be on him) was created by God and was separate to God. Is the heat from a radiator in one room the same as the light from the light bulb? Nobody would walk past and say they were one. Would we say the heat of the flame is the flame? No. In the same way, we cannot and do not say that Jesus is God. Blow on a flame and it goes out. Can the existence of God be likened to such a flame? No, Glorified and Exalted be He above that"
These are all terrible analogies. If these are the only analogies that Muslims have heard in defense of the trinity, then I can understand why they would consider the doctrine ridiculous. They all indicate a real distinction between the being of the things involved, which cannot be admitted in the case of the ineffable unity and simplicity of the Divine being/essence. I agree with Plato Himself: "The One is not many."

However, what Insaanah ascribes to Christians isn't orthodox Christian belief.

I very much appreciated, on the other hand, the quoted words of Ansar Al-'Adl, which I here quote:

When we say that the trinity is illogical, are we trying to comprehend God's nature within our limited scope of comprehension? Is that why we cannot comprehend trinity? Or is it because of something else?

There is a distinct difference between admitting that we cannot comprehend God's nature or appearance, and attributing something to God which defies reality. Allow me to elaborate.

1 is not equal to 3 (provided that the units are consistant). Those three units cannot operate with the same properties as the one unit. If one was equal to three then it wouldn't be one. Is this a matter of attempting to comprehend God? No, it is simply a matter of defining constant values in our universe.

According to trinitarian Christianity, God sent the Son to the world. The sender and the one being sent cannot be the same. Jesus called out to God and prayed to Him. The caller and the one being called upon cannot be the same.
The problem that he's having is that he doesn't understand the difference between signification and supposition (these are terms of medieval logic). Signification is when a term signifies or points out a nature. "Man" signifies human nature. Human nature is what "man" calls to mind and points to. Thus, "deity is humanity" is false. Supposition, however, is when a term "stands for" something, generally an individual. "Bob is running." "Bob" in this case, supposes for, i.e., stands for, the concrete individual, Bob, who is running. Again, consider the sentence: "A man is running." "A man," once again, can suppose for or stand for Bob. I can point at Bob and say: "A man is running," and it will be understood that by "A man," I mean Bob, i.e., the concrete individual who is running.

Thus, when the Christian says that "God sent the Son" or "Jesus called out to God," "God," in each case, must be understood as supposing for God, the Father. And here, the Christian will agree with what the quoted person above says: The Father is not the Son. They differ personally, i.e., in terms of interpersonal relationships (note that in every relationship, there are the two terms of the relationship (i.e., the two "things" which are related) and the relation itself: The Father is the Father of the Son). Such verses are to be understood as illustrating the distinction of divine persons. However, without this doctrine of signification and supposition, I can see how the confusion would arise. It does seem extremely strange to assert that someone calls out to or sends himself. However, this is not what's happening.

So the notion that there are three persons in one God, 3 in 1, is really nothing more than polytheism, because 1 God is 1 person, not three.
Polytheism is the assertion that there are multiple divine beings. The Christian asserts tha there is only a single divine being, but there is a plurality of real relationships "within" the One Divine Being which do not, for all of that, does not divide the essence. If you want analogies, the better analogies are knowledge and love. There are three terms in every relationship of knowledge and love: the lover or knower, the beloved or the known, and the knowledge or love itself. God is subsistent self-love (a self love, let us note, which exceeds the poverty of all created love: He is Subsistent Charity) and subsistent self-knowledge (a self knowledge, let us note, which exceeds the divisions of all created knowledge; He is, indeed, Subsistent Wisdom). The Father is a Lover who loves the Son; the Son is the beloved who is beloved by the Father; the Holy Ghost is the subsistent Love which ineffably unites them. Yet, there are not three lovers, three beloveds or three loves. There is a single God, who in the community of divine, subsistent relationships, loves and delights in His own Supreme Goodness and Majesty (and oh, if we could only see that, we would instantly fall in love with Him; for He is the Good Itself, infinitely delectable and the fountain of all good and all delights and all gifts).

Can the immortal die? A trinitarian will say, "God can do anything" but the correct answer is no, the immortal cannot die because that defies his attribute of immortality. If you die, you aren't immortal! It's not a matter of setting limits on God, its a matter of consistency in describing our universe. Can the All-Mighty be overcome? A trinitarian would say, "God can do anything" but again, this has nothing to do with God's potential.
Death and being overcome, these are not abilites they are inabilities. Death is the inability to live, therefore, the Eternal cannot die. NOT because of any lack in His potential, but because it defies His set attributes.
I agree with this. It is a contradiction to assert that the immortal and deathless is able to die, that the indestructible is able to be destroyed, etc. But once again, we must understand the difference between signification and supposition. Divinity is per se (in and of itself) immortal and deathless (thus do we pray in the Trisagion: "Holy God, Holy Mighty One, Holy Immortal One: have mercy on us, and on the whole world); humanity, however, is not. Jesus was able to die insofar as He was man, not insofar as He was God.

When I say "God died on the Cross," "God" supposes, i.e., stands for, for Jesus, the divine person. We can replace "God" in that sentence with "Jesus." So what we mean is: "Jesus (of whom both human and divine nature are predicated in their entirety) died on the Cross." In which, of course, there is no contradiction. Here, you may say that it's a contradiction to assert that "man is God" is a contradiction, and I'll agree with you, if by that sentence is understood "humanity is divinity." But all that I mean is that both "man" and "God" are predicated of Jesus, i.e., that Jesus is both fully God and fully man (i.e., everything which is true of God and everything which is true of man, insofar as each is each, likewise is true of Jesus). In this, of course, there is no contradiction.

The answer is that those two beliefs are not analogous.
I agree. Contradictions can't be admitted. Saying that God is mysterious and can't be comprehended is just a cop-out used by those who believe silly things.

Trinity is inconceivable.
It's not. The manner in which God is one is different from the way in which God is three. Recall what the law of non-contradiction states.

Such things are not properties of the universe we live in. So the trinity canot be accepted by anyone because it is logically self-contradictory. Furthermore, it finds no support in the Tanakh, the New Testament, or the Qur'an.
No support, of course, in the sections of the Tanakh that Muslims are willing to admit is credible, nor in the sections of the New Testament that Muslims are willing to admit is credible. If we take out all the verses that indicate the trinity or Jesus' divinity, of course, we won't be left with with any verses that indicate the trinity or Jesus' divinity. But that's just a tautology. :p
Reply

Traditio
07-23-2015, 10:37 PM
A couple addenda, having reviewed a few of the links:

1. If you appeal to the "miraculous" production of the Koran, I'll answer you that you've given me as much reason to believe in the authority of your prophet as I have to believe in the authority of John Smith of the Mormon sect. (Come to think of it, Muslims and Mormons share many of their beliefs in common.)

2. One person in another thread appealed to the literary value and beauty of the Koran, to which here allegedly is no equal. My gut reaction to this is: "Have you heard of Cicero?" Furthermore, what does that mean? What's the point of comparison?

Among other comparable Arabic works? In terms of euphony? In terms of the depth of the ideas? If in terms of euphony, that's not hard to accomplish. I mean no offense by this, but Arabic isn't a particularly euphonic language. Too much emphasis on gutteral sounds and not enough vowel use (seriously, I own a copy of "The Arabic Alphabet" by Nicholas Awde and Putros Samano, and what's up with the Arabic hamza (glottal stop)?). It probably sounds worse than Russian, and Russian isn't exactly the language of love. (Oppose this to Greek and Romance languages; the first few lines of Virgil's Aeneid, simply in terms of the sounds, are positively breath-taking:

"Arma virumque cano, Troiae qui primus ab oris
Italiam, fato profugus, Laviniaque venit
litora, multum ille et terris iactatus et alto
vi superum saevae memorem Iunonis ob iram;
multa quoque et bello passus, dum conderet urbem, 5
inferretque deos Latio, genus unde Latinum,
Albanique patres, atque altae moenia Romae.")

If in terms of depth of thought, then have you heard of Plato?
Reply

Muhammad
07-25-2015, 09:08 PM
Greetings Traditio,

You’ve raised many issues in your post (and I’m not sure how they’re related to this thread). If this discussion is to continue, it isn’t feasible to discuss so many broad areas together, not in any great detail anyway. I’d suggest we stick to the most relevant topic and maybe discuss others elsewhere.

I will also say at the outset that I’m rather disappointed at the lack of fairness applied when examining Islam. I won’t tolerate disrespectful remarks – they add nothing to the discussion and simply bring your arguments (and you) down.

I’ve grouped most of the points into three broad areas below.

format_quote Originally Posted by Traditio
Admin: are there no disagreements among Muslims? Do no Muslims misunderstand points of Islamic doctrine? If my interlocutor was mistaken, then you must not credit such mistakes to Christianity itself, nor must you think that our (at least apparent) disagreement indicates any real confusion in the doctrines of the orthodoxy
The point is not about a mere disagreement, but the confusion with regards to the most fundamental part of your religion - God Himself. It's interesting you add that it does not indicate 'any real confusion' in Christian doctrine, when that's exactly what it's based on. The Nicene Creed that you quote wasn't formalized until three centuries after the time of Jesus. Numerous creeds preceded it and numerous revisions and debates followed. The earliest creed lacks any Trinitarian reference, whereas the Nicene incorporates ‘Son of God’, ‘God of God’, ‘Begotten, not made’, all of which attests to the ever-changing Christian beliefs regarding Jesus during Christianity’s formative days. How unfortunate that it didn’t stop at "I believe in one God."

I am giving you the doctrines of the philosophers (when I speak of the divine nature), of the One Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church and of the doctors and fathers of the Church (when I speak of the plurality of the divine persons)
This, perhaps, is the root of the confusion. I don't want to know what the philosophers, doctors and church fathers have said. I want to know what God Himself has said or what His Prophet has taught. And this is something Christians have a hard time proving.


Trinity


You have written much about the trinity and brought in yet another analogy. However, no matter how many times one keeps repeating it, or in how many ways it is explained, it will forever remain problematic.

In every explanation you offer, I see a contradiction (you can add me to the list of those who apparently ‘don’t understand the rules of logic’). You say you don't believe that God is made up of parts and does not need something to hold him together. Yet you later say He consists of a lover, beloved and a subsistent love that unites these two. You say that there cannot be a ‘real distinction between the being of the things involved’. Yet you go on to say ‘the Father is not the Son. They differ personally.’

The bottom line is that the persons of the ‘Father’, ‘Son’ and ‘Holy Ghost’ are each distinct. When one thinks about one, he is not thinking of the other. Their images cannot be superimposed to create one. It doesn’t matter if you call them essences, persons or relationships, there is a plurality which cannot be justified by saying ‘it’s all within the One Divine Being’, or that the manner of being three is different to that of being one. Consider the following:

Christians will say:

- The Father is truly God.
- The Son is truly God.
- The Holy Spirit is truly God.
- These are not three Gods, but three different persons who share the essence of that one being who is God.

That is as illogical as me saying:

- Ahmed is a human being.
- Khalid is a human being.
- Ayman is a human being.
- These are not three human beings, but three different persons who share ONE essence, which is human.

Obviously no one says that one essence "human" is being shared by seven billion people on Earth today. Rather, we say that there are seven billion human beings on Earth today. Similarly, we can't say that there are three different persons sharing the one essence of God, but that there are three different Gods in light of what the Trinity teaches.

But all that I mean is that both "man" and "God" are predicated of Jesus, i.e., that Jesus is both fully God and fully man (i.e., everything which is true of God and everything which is true of man, insofar as each is each, likewise is true of Jesus). In this, of course, there is no contradiction.
Here you are simply restating your own doctrine, and there’s nothing compelling (sound familiar?). In actuality, there’s a very clear contradiction and a very convoluted attempt to try and get away from it.

Saying that Jesus :as: has two natures, one of God and the other of man, is a different claim than that of the Trinity, which is that God exists in three persons. This idea arose because Trinitarians needed to account for the many verses that so clearly represent Jesus as a man and disqualify him from being God.

How can it be that the same mind consequently is both created and uncreated, both finite and infinite, both dependent and independent, both changeable and unchangeable, both mortal and immortal, both susceptible of pain and incapable of it, both able to do all things and not able, both acquainted with all things and not acquainted with them?

I agree. Contradictions can't be admitted. Saying that God is mysterious and can't be comprehended is just a cop-out used by those who believe silly things.
Why then do you repeatedly use terms such as ‘unspeakably mysterious relationships’ and ‘the ineffable unity’? Why are you commanded ‘to believe where reason cannot go’?


Apostolic Succession & The Bible


I should have no cause to believe in Jesus or in the gospels unless the bishops of the Catholic Church, who can trace their succession in an unbroken lineage back to the apostles of Jesus Himself, had commanded me to believe on the basis of their authority. You may cast doubt on the gospels being eye witness accounts. But the apostles were eye witnesses, and I believe in the doctrines which they have handed down to us through their successors. I believe on the basis of their authority, of their account.
So essentially you place the word of bishops/the church above all else. This is a problem in itself as it gives authority to Christians to refuse to agree with their own scripture and interpret it according to their personal ideas. In other words, how do you know that you are following the true teachings of Jesus and not the misguidance others may have attributed to him? Notable in this regard is how the scripture warns of false teachings arising even from among church leaders, and that Christians were to compare the teachings of these later church leaders with Scripture. According to the Bible, Jesus is reported to have said, ‘… in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the precepts of men.’ (Matthew 15:9)

Furthermore, I don’t understand how you can claim apostolic succession is a standard of ‘reasonableness and historical credibility’. There is no record of the names of bishops let alone their biographies. You know practically nothing about the people carrying your creed. Neither is it clear if they can be traced to the apostles.

Francis A. Sullivan, a Catholic priest and distinguished theologian, believes that apostolic succession is something that is not readily provable in conception, and therefore must be accepted as a matter of faith: ‘Neither the New Testament nor early Christian history offers support for a notion of apostolic succession as “an unbroken line of episcopal ordination from Christ through the apostles down through the centuries to the bishops of today … one must invoke a theological argument based on Christian faith to arrive at the conclusion that bishops are the successors of the apostles “by divine institution”. (From Apostles to Bishops: The Development of the Episcopacy in the Early Church)

This is notwithstanding other issues such as the fact that the picture painted by the four gospels of Jesus’ disciples shows several incidences of cowardice and ill fortitude, casting doubt on how successfully they modelled their lives on his, thus undermining Christianity’s first line of teachers. We also know that characters like Paul who are responsible for much of Christian teaching didn't even meet Jesus.

"But we saw," so said the Apostles, "this very thing happen, and here is what He told us." And the world trembled at their words and believed.
I hope you’re not expecting me to see that as evidence.

Compare all this to the intricate system in Islam of studying each person in the chain of narrators, checking their reliability and memory, checking that the chain is unbroken, cross-examining with other chains, examining the text of the report… to claim you have more credibility in this regard is truly laughable.

On the one hand, Muslims will quote from the Old and New Testaments when it is convenient for them, but then, in the same breath, will claim that the verses which disagree with them are later interpolations.
Muslims believe that Jesus :as: was a Prophet of God to whom a revelation was revealed. However, this revelation was not preserved. This does not mean that there is absolutely no truth left in the gospels extant today. The criterion then, for deciding what is true from the Bible and what isn't, is the Qur'an, God's final message to mankind which He promised to protect.

There are a number of reasons why Muslims might quote from the Bible. For example, Muslims believe that the Prophet Muhammad :saws: was prophecised in former scriptures. Therefore there is a discussion about such a prophecy in the Bible. Also, since Christians don’t accept the Qur’an as the Word of God, sometimes the Bible is used to discuss with Christians based on their own teachings and in order to stimulate a more unbiased understanding. The Bible is also used to demonstrate to Christians the flaws in their foundation and to challenge them with regards to the claims that they preach to Muslims. Some ex-Christians have even stated that the Bible led them to Islam.

Continued in the next post :ia:.
Reply

Muhammad
07-25-2015, 09:15 PM
Islam

You have no basis, not even a probable one, for your beliefs. None. I believe based on a strong probability (i.e., the eye witnesses were credible). Your beliefs are groundless. You believe what you do because a guy said an angel spoke to him.
You are willing to believe that God can turn into a man, suffer at the hands of His own creation and be killed in a torturous death, yet find it strange that an angel can descend with revelation. Why do you overlook the teaching of your Bible, where we find angels involved in communicating God’s message? See for instance: Acts 7:38, 53; Gal 3:19; Heb 2:2.

Interestingly, it was a Christian who was among the first to affirm the truth of the Prophet :saws: and recognised the form of revelation as being genuine:

Khadija then accompanied him to her cousin Waraqa bin Naufal bin Asad bin 'Abdul 'Uzza, who, during the pre-Islamic Period became a Christian and used to write the writing with Hebrew letters. He would write from the Gospel in Hebrew as much as Allah wished him to write. He was an old man and had lost his eyesight. Khadija said to Waraqa, "Listen to the story of your nephew, O my cousin!" Waraqa asked, "O my nephew! What have you seen?" Allah's Apostle described whatever he had seen. Waraqa said, "This is the same one who keeps the secrets (angel Gabriel) whom Allah had sent to Moses. I wish I were young and could live up to the time when your people would turn you out." Allah's Apostle asked, "Will they drive me out?" Waraqa replied in the affirmative and said, "Anyone (man) who came with something similar to what you have brought was treated with hostility; and if I should remain alive till the day when you will be turned out then I would support you strongly." But after a few days Waraqa died.
Volume 1, Book 1, Number 3 [Sahih Bukhari]

Your prophet commands you to believe in matters about which natural reason speaks, and he tells us no more than what we already could have known about on our own (and he commands us to believe many false things besides).
Please explain how we could know about details regarding Paradise, Hell, the Day of Judgement, the angels and devils, and about the countless details of how we should worship God, all on our own? Which false things?

It is for this reason that Averroes, a medieval philosopher in your own religious tradition, considered Islam a mere congeries of fables,
I’m not sure where you got this from. Ibn Rushd set out to show that there is no incompatibility between religion and philosophy when both are properly understood. He used Quranic injunctions to reflect upon and to observe Allah’s signs as an injunction to philosophize. I find it difficult to believe he could have such a low opinion of Islam when he was a Maliki Jurist (Qadi). By his own account, he took 20 years to produce Bidayat al-Mujtahid wa Nihayat al-Muqtasid, his primary work of fiqh. Despite his enemies' charges to the contrary, Ibn Rushd did not attempt to subvert religion using philosophy, but rather used analytical methods to better understand the message and tenets of Islam.

Your prophet throws up a veil to hide what reason can tell us.
This can only be said by one so ignorant of Islamic teaching and history. Islam urges people to reflect and learn on every occasion. The verses of the Qur'an command, advise, warn, and encourage people to observe the phenomena of nature, the succession of day and night, the movements of stars, the sun, moon, and other heavenly bodies. This helps to better appreciate and be thankful for all the wonders and beauty of God's creations. Muslims are urged to apply intellect and act upon evidence. The first revelation to the Prophet Muhammad :saws: was:

Read! In the Name of your Lord Who has created (all that exists). He has created man from a clot (a piece of thick coagulated blood). Read! And your Lord is the Most Generous. Who has taught (the writing) by the pen. He has taught man that which he knew not.
Qur’an English Translation [96:1-5]

Centuries before the European Renaissance there were Muslim explorers, scientists, philosophers and physicians. During most of its history, Islamic civilization has been witness to a veritable celebration of knowledge. Every traditional Islamic city possessed public and private libraries and some cities like Cordoba and Baghdad boasted of libraries with over 400,000 books. The scholar has always been held in the highest esteem in Islamic society. The Islamic university system predates renowned schools such as The University of Oxford and Cambridge by more than three centuries.

Have a look at the following link, a website which contains more than 1000 peer-reviewed articles regarding the Golden Age of Muslim civilisation and contributions of Muslims to every field of intellectual discovery:
http://www.muslimheritage.com/

If the mass is roughly 2000 years old, and if we have received it from the apostles, then your prophet is not credible, and his words are not God's words.
You boast of a tradition because it is 2000 years old (if it can be proven that this is indeed the teaching of the apostles and actually coming from Jesus :as:). Yet the central message of Islam was the faith of the very first man who set foot on this earth. All of the Prophets taught submission to God alone, the same submission we practice today. This takes us back to the first post in this thread – even Jesus :as: was a Muslim.

The Prophet Muhammad :saws: said:

"I am the closest of all people to the son of Mary (Jesus). The prophets are paternal brothers, their mothers are different, but their religion is one." (Saheeh Al-Bukhari, Saheeh Muslim)

What public miracles did he perform that I should believe in a single word of his testimony?
The Qur’an is the greatest miracle that the Prophet :saws: brought, which captivated even the most eloquent of people in the most eloquent of times, challenging them to produce a single chapter than would be comparable to it. Numerous other miracles were performed which are too many to list here. They include the splitting of the moon, various prophecies regarding the future, miracles related to the earth (water flowing from between his fingers, increasing the quantity of food and water, the palm tree yearning for him, stones greeting him), miracles related to animals, miracles related to his Companions and miracles related to the cure of disease, to name but a few.

But I tell you, the history of the Catholic Church has abounded in miracles even after Jesus ascended into heaven.
Muslims across the globe recite the very Words of God as revealed to His Final Messenger :saws:. I find this to be a miracle occurring on a daily basis.

Show me, I say, a single piece of evidence which could only have come from God which testifies to the words of your prophet being from God.
If you’ve reviewed the links above then I assume you already have some idea of what the evidences are. We can begin by considering two broad categories: the Prophethood of Muhammad :saws:, and the miracle of the Qur’an.

Regarding the first, whichever aspect of the life of the Prophet :saws: we study, we see evidence for the truth and credibility of his message. He was from a noble family and one who, from the beginning, demonstrated a virtuous character and was well-respected amongst his people. They called him ‘Al-Amin’ (the trustworthy) and considered his advice. This is a very important sign of the truth of his Prophethood as someone who has never lied to people would not lie regarding the Lord of the Worlds.

You make an accusation that he was deluded or insane. If examined, this claim does not stand whatsoever. The Prophet :saws: displayed no symptom of insanity at any time in his life. No friend, wife, or family member suspected or abandoned him due to insanity. To the contrary, they viewed him as an example to be followed and found from him a solution to their problems. The Prophet :saws: preached for a long time and brought a Law unknown in its completeness and sophistication to an ignorant society. If he was insane, it would have become obvious to those around him in the decades of his teaching. When in history did an insane man preach his message to worship One God for ten years, three of which he and his followers spent in exile, and eventually became the ruler of his lands? Which insane man has ever won the hearts and minds of people who met him and earned the respect of his adversaries? Delusion cannot explain the detailed legal codes and rulings that would be followed by millions over centuries, providing guidance in all areas of life including divorce, inheritance, finance, moral character and social justice. Delusion cannot explain 600 pages of revelation to an illiterate man that would be inimitable by the most talented around him, that would be memorised, recited and taught every day. Delusion does not explain the distinct difference that would come over him when he was receiving revelation, as witnessed by his Companions.

Those are some points to get you thinking. There are many other areas to explore, such as how he could know of stories regarding previous Prophets and nations, the testimony of those Jews and Christians who came to know him, his miracles and prophecies, the fact that he did not desire material gain or power, and the list goes on.

The second category of discussion is the Qur’an. There are numerous facets related to the Qur’an to prove its miraculous nature. I have linked you to threads and posts above, so I’ll only quote the following for now:

format_quote Originally Posted by Ansar Al-'Adl
I'll try to give you a comprehensive answer as to why the Qur'an is regarded the way it is by so many people.
1. The Power of the Qur'anic Message:
-it is universal, unrestricted by time and applicable to any nation/culture. The Qur'an is by far the most widely followed and acted-upon book in the world. As for the Bible, most Christians follow the Church over the Bible, and each denomination has its own bible anyway. The fact that there is no other book in the world that forms the constitution of the lives of billions of followers is itself a sign.
-it is practical and logical, it can be established practically in society and is logically able to address the fundamental questions relating to all aspects of our universe.
-it is comprehensive, addressing all fundamental sectors of human life, be it spritual, physical, mental, social/societal, politcal, environmental, economic, etc.
-it is natural, in concordance with a person's nature and what they feel deep inside to be the truth.
-it is clear and consistent, free of the changes in worldview and understanding that dominate the works of human beings.
-it is deep, having provoked thousands upon thousands of volumes of exegesis, expounding upon its meaning and revealing fascinating details that many people otherwise miss in their reading of the Qur'an.
2. The Power of the Qur'anic Style:
-it is Interactive, the text seems alive as it responds to the very questions that arise in one's mind at that moment. It speaks to the reader and delivers specific yet universal advice.
-it is Inerrant, free from contradictons and discrepancies, or other errors that would normally be found in the works of human beings.
-it is Memorizable; the Qur'an is the only book in the world which is continuously being memorized by millions of people and recited daily. No other book has been committed to memory by so many followers, as though it fits in one's mind as a key in a lock.
-its Language, the Qur'anic arabic is a stunning miracle in itself, its style is powerful and its recitation is melodious. More info: Here, Here, Here.
3. The Power of the Qur'anic Text:
-it is Preserved, even after fourteen and a half centuries, the Qur'an is recited today exactly as it was first revealed. Thus it was free of the tampering that befell other religious scriptures.
-its other Remarkable features; many Muslims find a striking concordance between many Qur'anic statements and established scientific truths, which could not have been known by any normal human being 14 centuries ago. (see here). Many Muslims have also found the Qur'anic perfection extends even to various mathematical miracles within the text (see here for discussion of word repetitions). As well, there are the Qur'anic Prophecies.
-its Authorship; the context in which the Qur'an was revealed leaves the reader with no other conclusion than the fact that it could only be the word of God.
This is just my summary of the miraculous features Muslims find in the Qur'an. For more information, please see section 3c of The First and Final Commandment.


2. One person in another thread appealed to the literary value and beauty of the Koran, to which here allegedly is no equal. My gut reaction to this is: "Have you heard of Cicero?" Furthermore, what does that mean? What's the point of comparison?

Among other comparable Arabic works? In terms of euphony? In terms of the depth of the ideas?
I’m not asking for your gut reaction here, but a sincere study and search for truth. You can read more about the challenge of the Qur’an here:
http://www.islamicboard.com/discover...se-poetry.html
http://www.islamicboard.com/qur-an/5...challenge.html

If in terms of euphony, that's not hard to accomplish.
For people who have no knowledge of the Arabic language and the science of Tajweed, it’s easy to make such remarks. Owning a book about the language is a far cry from actually knowing the language to appreciate it. Millions of Muslims are non-Arabs yet the impact the Qur’anic recitation has on them cannot be expressed in words.

We have a whole science in Islam dedicated to the recitation of the Qur’an. The pronunciation of letters, the degrees in tones, nasalization and the different qualities are so well documented in Arabic that the script comes together as a well-defined, well-oiled machine.

Remember that the Qur'an was not revealed to the Prophet :saws: as a book, nor was it dispersed or preached primarily in written form - it was through recitation that is was primarily received and dispersed. Even non-Muslims appreciate this point. The following is written by Michael Sells, a Professor of Religion who speaks about the Qur'an to non-Muslim readers:

As the students learn these Suras, they are not simply learning something by rote, but rather interiorizing the inner rhythms, sound patterns, and textual dynamics - taking it to heart in the deepest manner.

Gradually the student moves on to other sections of the Qur'an. Yet the pattern set by this early, oral encounter with the text is maintained throughout life. The Qur'anic experience is not the experience of reading a written text from beginning to end. Rather, the themes, stories, hymns, and laws of the Qur'an are woven through the life stages of the individual, the key moments of the community, and the sensual world of the town and village. Life is punctuated by the recitation of the Qur'an by trained reciters who speak from the minarets of mosques, on the radio, and from cassettes played by bus drivers, taxi drivers, and individuals.


Thus, anyone attempting to answer the challenge must produce for us a recitation - not just a written composition. So let us see if these critics can produce for us a recitation that matches the quality of such:
http://www.islamicboard.com/discover...ecitation.html
Reply

Traditio
07-26-2015, 10:02 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muhammad
Greetings Traditio,

You’ve raised many issues in your post (and I’m not sure how they’re related to this thread). If this discussion is to continue, it isn’t feasible to discuss so many broad areas together, not in any great detail anyway.
Very good point. A propos of this, I'll divide my replies to the distinct areas into different postings.

I’d suggest we stick to the most relevant topic and maybe discuss others elsewhere.

I will also say at the outset that I’m rather disappointed at the lack of fairness applied when examining Islam. I won’t tolerate disrespectful remarks – they add nothing to the discussion and simply bring your arguments (and you) down.
As I understand it, the topic of the original posting is: "Jesus was a Muslim, insofar as He preached submission to the One God, and this is all that the word 'Muslim' means. He intended to teach no new doctrines on this point." If he intends to say this to Muslims, then he preaches to the choir. If he intends to say this to Christians, on the other hand...then my point about the credibility of the testimonies of the bishops vs. the testimony of your prophet comes into play. I only started talking about the Trinity a propos of your quote above.

At any rate, I do apologize if anything I've said has come off as unfair or disrespectful, and I hope that you'll (correctly) ascribe it to ignorance on my part.

The point is not about a mere disagreement, but the confusion with regards to the most fundamental part of your religion - God Himself. It's interesting you add that it does not indicate 'any real confusion' in Christian doctrine, when that's exactly what it's based on. The Nicene Creed that you quote wasn't formalized until three centuries after the time of Jesus. Numerous creeds preceded it and numerous revisions and debates followed. The earliest creed lacks any Trinitarian reference, whereas the Nicene incorporates ‘Son of God’, ‘God of God’, ‘Begotten, not made’, all of which attests to the ever-changing Christian beliefs regarding Jesus during Christianity’s formative days. How unfortunate that it didn’t stop at "I believe in one God."
Trinitarian belief predates the Council of Nicea, as is evident from the fact that it was called in the first place. Generally, councils of the Church are only called when there are large disagreements or problems that need to be settled, generally because of new heresies that arise and need to be stamped out. The fact that a doctrine is formally expressed in a council, in and of itself, is not an indication that the doctrine wasn't held previously. Consider, e.g., the fact that transubstantiation was only formally defined (I think) in the Council of Trent (1500s AD, I think). Nonetheless, the Council didn't define a new doctrine. It's something that was already part of the deposit of the Faith, vis-a-vis Sacred Tradition (i.e., the tenets of the Catholic Faith handed down to us through the succession of bishops in communion with the Roman Pontiff). It only need to be defined by a Council because large numbers of protestant heretics were denying what Catholics already believed. Likewise, the Council of Nicea was called because a large number of bishops were teaching something new, heretical and contrary to the deposit of the Faith. Arianism, not the belief in the Trinity, was the new [heretical] doctrine.

Trinity

You have written much about the trinity and brought in yet another analogy. However, no matter how many times one keeps repeating it, or in how many ways it is explained, it will forever remain problematic.
I completely agree with this. The Trinity is a mystery of faith. We can't really understand it this side of eternity. Not because, of course, it contradicts reason, but because it exceeds reason. To use Aristotle's image, we are like owls trying to stare at the sun.

In every explanation you offer, I see a contradiction (you can add me to the list of those who apparently ‘don’t understand the rules of logic’). You say you don't believe that God is made up of parts and does not need something to hold him together. Yet you later say He consists of a lover, beloved and a subsistent love that unites these two. You say that there cannot be a ‘real distinction between the being of the things involved’. Yet you go on to say ‘the Father is not the Son. They differ personally.’
A real distinction of relationships doesn't imply a real distinction of parts in the substance of the thing in question. Consider, e.g., that a given man both may be a father and a son. Nonetheless, the plurality of real relationships which hold true of that one man don't correspond to a real ontological plurality (of parts) in that man. The being of a relationship isn't in something, but towards something. Because the man is a father, he is related to something else, i.e., to his son. When I say that the Holy Ghost is subsistent love who "unites" the lover and the beloved, all I mean by that is that the two terms of a relationship are "bound together" by that relationship. E.g., a father really is related to his son through his fathership. So, when I say that the Holy Ghost, as subsistent love, "unites" the lover and the beloved, I don't mean to indicate that the persons of the trinity are really distinct divine beings or "parts" of the Divine Being who have to be "put together." I am only illustrating the triadic nature of every relationship. There are the two relata (i.e., "things related,") and the relationship itself. In this case, what we are talking about is the triune nature of Divine Self-love and Divine Self-Knowledge. What we are talking about is not three Gods, but a single God who knows and loves Himself, and for whom knowledge and love find expression in the persons (as subsistent relationships) of the Trinity.

Of course, even here, the "image" of knowledge and love may seem deficient, but this is only because of the limits of created knowledge and love. Knowledge, ultimately, is simply the cognitional union of knower and known. The known comes to exist in the knower in a cognitional way. Likewise, love is simply the desire (if I might use this term loosely) for union with the beloved.

The bottom line is that the persons of the ‘Father’, ‘Son’ and ‘Holy Ghost’ are each distinct.
According to relation, not according to the Divine Being. This is why the persons of the Trinity are irreducibly distinct, and yet are not distinct divine beings. This is because of the nature of relations or relationships. Necessarily, sonship and fathership, insofar as related to each other, are distinct, and yet, related to or towards each other. Sonship is to be the son of a father. Fathership is to be the father of a son.

When one thinks about one, he is not thinking of the other.
Yes and no. It's the same as when one thinks about a father. Yes, father and son are distinct (at least according to relation), and yet, fatherhood implies sonhood, and the other way around.

Their images cannot be superimposed to create one. It doesn’t matter if you call them essences, persons or relationships, there is a plurality which cannot be justified by saying ‘it’s all within the One Divine Being’, or that the manner of being three is different to that of being one. Consider the following:

Christians will say:

- The Father is truly God.
- The Son is truly God.
- The Holy Spirit is truly God.
- These are not three Gods, but three different persons who share the essence of that one being who is God.

That is as illogical as me saying:

- Ahmed is a human being.
- Khalid is a human being.
- Ayman is a human being.
- These are not three human beings, but three different persons who share ONE essence, which is human.

Obviously no one says that one essence "human" is being shared by seven billion people on Earth today. Rather, we say that there are seven billion human beings on Earth today. Similarly, we can't say that there are three different persons sharing the one essence of God, but that there are three different Gods in light of what the Trinity teaches.
Very clever, Admin. If you'll admit the brief tangent, I must admit, I smiled when I read this last bit about the three human beings. For one thing, it reminds me of when I was reading Avicenna's Metaphysics of the Healing, and he consistently used Arabic names (as opposed to Greek names) for examples. Instead of "Socrates waves his keys," "Zayed waves his keys." For another, I was impressed by the insight of your counterexample.

So, I'll begin by saying that Ahmed, Khalid and Ayman could be a single human being (i.e., one according both to essence and existence), presupposing that "Ahmed," "Khalid" and "Ayman" are names for numerically the same individual. Presumably, however, you intend to say that Ahmed, Khalid and Ayman are three numerically distinct individuals, who nonetheless equally participate in humanity.

As St. Thomas says, two horses agree according to equinity, but differ according to being (differunt secundum esse).

And this is a fair point. It's a contradiction to assert that three distinct individuals are one individual. That's completely ridiculous, and you are right to point it out. When, however, I assert that Father, Son and Holy Ghost are one God, I intend to assert the following. 1. There is only a single divine being. 2. Each person of the Trinity wholly possesses that singular divine being and that singular divine essence. In other words, each is God and, in particular, that one, single, same God. I.e., Father, Son and Holy Ghost do not indicate numerically distinct divine beings in the same way that Ahmed, Khalid and Ayman indicate numerically distinct human beings. They differ, not according to essence, nor according to being, but according to relation.

Here you are simply restating your own doctrine, and there’s nothing compelling (sound familiar?). In actuality, there’s a very clear contradiction and a very convoluted attempt to try and get away from it.
I was simply pointing out that the doctrine, as stated, doesn't meet the criterion of a contradiction. I'm not saying that something both is and is not in the same respect at the same time.

Saying that Jesus :as: has two natures, one of God and the other of man, is a different claim than that of the Trinity, which is that God exists in three persons. This idea arose because Trinitarians needed to account for the many verses that so clearly represent Jesus as a man and disqualify him from being God.

How can it be that the same mind consequently is both created and uncreated, both finite and infinite, both dependent and independent, both changeable and unchangeable, both mortal and immortal, both susceptible of pain and incapable of it, both able to do all things and not able, both acquainted with all things and not acquainted with them?
I completely agree with what you are saying here. That would be a most grevious contradiction, and if Christians believed this, then I would have to side with you wholeheartedly in rejecting their doctrines as abhorrent to reason. [I must ask, at this point: where did you get this notion from? Does your prophet accuse Christians of believing this?]

But we don't believe that. We don't believe that Jesus Christ had a single intellect. This is the view, not of Catholics, but of various heretics. Jesus, as fully God and fully man, possesses two intellects and two wills: an uncreated intellect and will (as Divine Word) and a created intellect and will (as man). I don't think that you are fully appreciating what I mean when I say that Jesus possesses both a human and a divine nature, and, therefore, everything which is true of man as man or God as God is true of Jesus. Jesus, as man, has body and soul (which, in turn, is why He was able to die; death is simply the separation of body and soul). He is endowed with sensation, imagination, etc. He felt pleasure and pain. He possesses a human mind, a human intellect, a human reason. Yet, He is also God, and as such, is Divine Wisdom and Divine Mercy and Divine Charity.

We Catholics do not say that Jesus was God in human costume. We Catholics do not say that Jesus is divinity turned into humanity (as though he stopped being God and started being human). Jesus is God who has assumed, in the unity of His person, humanity. When we say that "the word became flesh," we mean that the Divine Word, remaining eternally as He is, took on a human nature and fully and really became a human being.

Why then do you repeatedly use terms such as ‘unspeakably mysterious relationships’ and ‘the ineffable unity’? Why are you commanded ‘to believe where reason cannot go’?
Because there are some things that we simply cannot know by our own power. There are some things that we simply have to take on faith. Consider, e.g., the stories that your mother tells you about when you were a baby. You accept this purely on her authority. Again, consider what you believe about your prophet. Did an angel talk to him? You can't know that through rational inquiry. You believe it on the [errant, I believe] testimony of others.

In the case of the Trinity, what we are talking about is the inner life of God. You'll accuse me of a cop-out. But I'll ask you to consider the following. What reason do we have to believe in God in the first place? We see, as St. Paul says, the existence of God written in the works of creation (Romans 1). From created things we can reason to the fact that God exists, that He is One, that He is Good, etc. But our mode of procedure is just the same as when we reason from the activities of plants to the fact that the sun exists and is a heat source for them.

We aren't looking at the sun itself. We are looking at plants and reasoning to their cause.

Likewise, in the case of God, we aren't looking at God Himself. We are looking at creation and reasoning to its cause. Created things possess being, unity and goodness, and therefore, their First Cause must be Being Itself, Unity Itself and Goodness Itself. But what does unity, goodness, truth and beauty and being mean when applied to God? We have no idea. We know that God exists. We don't know what God is. Even our term "God" only indicates God's relationship to created things. What is God in Himself? What is the inner life of God like? We have no way of knowing by our own natural powers.

This is where the doctrine of the Trinity comes into play.

And note, of course, that even though the Trinity, insofar as it indicates something about God's inner life, is beyond reason, note that it is not discordant with what we can know. You'll focus on your prophet's insistence that God is One. I agree that God is one: Plato, Plotinus, Iamblichus and Proclus insist on this very point. But I also know that God is The Good Itself, and as the Good is an overflowing, creative, productive fullness. In the words of Plotinus, God is the dunamis panton (the [productive] power of [making] all things). The infinity of His Goodness "overflows," so to speak, with "sheer excess," so to speak. When I hear of the doctrine of the Trinity, I am told by Faith what is consistent with reason: "The inner life of God is not barren and sterile. It's dynamic and expressive."
Reply

Traditio
07-26-2015, 11:20 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muhammad
Apostolic Succession & The Bible

So essentially you place the word of bishops/the church above all else. This is a problem in itself as it gives authority to Christians to refuse to agree with their own scripture and interpret it according to their personal ideas. In other words, how do you know that you are following the true teachings of Jesus and not the misguidance others may have attributed to him? Notable in this regard is how the scripture warns of false teachings arising even from among church leaders, and that Christians were to compare the teachings of these later church leaders with Scripture. According to the Bible, Jesus is reported to have said, ‘… in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the precepts of men.’ (Matthew 15:9)
Protestants make similar arguments, i.e., that Catholics put "the tradition of men" over the "word of God." A simple overview of the vast plurality of protestant sects, and their vastly different interpretations of the Sacred Scriptures and their corresponding beliefs, however, ultimately shows that what you are suggesting isn't quite right.

It is precisely because my belief in the Sacred Scriptures is grounded in my belief in the authority of the Catholic Bishops, and the Sacred Tradition which they have handed on from the time of Jesus Christ and the apostles themselves, that I am quite sure that I have absolutely no leeway to "refuse to agree with their own scripture and interpret it according to their personal ideas." The sole authoritative interpreter of the Sacred Scriptures is the Church and Her magisterial (teaching) authority, and She cannot change it at whim, but simply hands on to us what She has always held for almost two thousand years.

It is the protestant, not the Catholic, who can be accused of playing fast and loose with scriptural interpretation and changing doctrine at whim. Should a bishop teach heresy, at odds with the received interpretation of the Scriptures, the Church Itself would say (as She has said in many councils): "That is not the tradition that you have received from me. Look and see, for this, and not what you say, is what I have always believed and handed on."

Furthermore, I don’t understand how you can claim apostolic succession is a standard of ‘reasonableness and historical credibility’. There is no record of the names of bishops let alone their biographies. You know practically nothing about the people carrying your creed. Neither is it clear if they can be traced to the apostles.
Can you point to any point in time, from the time of the apostles onwards, in which there have not been bishops who have claimed simply to be handing on a Sacred Tradition which they have received from others? If you wish to deny apostolic succession, then there is a simple way to do so: show me a breach in that succession. Do you wish to deny that the Catholic mass has been celebrated from the time of Jesus Christ all the way to the present day? Then show me a time in between in which the Catholic mass wasn't celebrated.

It is, however, interesting that you want names and biographies. I have such a list just for the bishops of Rome.

Francis A. Sullivan, a Catholic priest and distinguished theologian, believes that apostolic succession is something that is not readily provable in conception, and therefore must be accepted as a matter of faith: ‘Neither the New Testament nor early Christian history offers support for a notion of apostolic succession as “an unbroken line of episcopal ordination from Christ through the apostles down through the centuries to the bishops of today … one must invoke a theological argument based on Christian faith to arrive at the conclusion that bishops are the successors of the apostles “by divine institution”. (From Apostles to Bishops: The Development of the Episcopacy in the Early Church)
The key words are "by divine institution." It takes an act of faith to believe that the bishops have received the deposit of faith and are handing on that deposit of faith by divine commission. I'm not sure that it takes an act of faith, however, to believe the fact that there is such an unbroken line of bishops, i.e., that there have always been people who have claimed to hold such an office. I mean, you can simply deny that the bishops are conveyers of divinely revealed truth and have a special office instituted by Jesus Christ. That's not the same thing as denying that there have always been bishops since the time of Jesus' apostles.

This is notwithstanding other issues such as the fact that the picture painted by the four gospels of Jesus’ disciples shows several incidences of cowardice and ill fortitude, casting doubt on how successfully they modelled their lives on his, thus undermining Christianity’s first line of teachers.
You are conflating two distinct ideas:

1. The bishops have conveyed divinely revealed truth vis-a-vis Sacred Tradition.
2. The bishops were and are impeccable (sinless).

The affirmation of 1 and the denial of two aren't mutually exclusive. I can assert that St. Peter and the other apostles were sinners, and yet Jesus appointed him and them to positions of teaching authority and entrusted him and them with a deposit of divine revelation

Furthermore, are we talking about prior or posterior to Pentecost and the descent of the Holy Ghost upon the apostles? If you read the Acts of the Apostles, your opinion of the apostles may change.

We also know that characters like Paul who are responsible for much of Christian teaching didn't even meet Jesus.
St. Paul is a strange case. Have you read Acts of the Apostles?

At any rate, even if St. Paul "didn't even meet Jesus" prior to Jesus' passion and death, so what? I don't ground my beliefs solely in the authority of St. Paul. There's also the matter of the eleven apostles (I'm not counting Judas) who did meet Jesus.

Compare all this to the intricate system in Islam of studying each person in the chain of narrators, checking their reliability and memory, checking that the chain is unbroken, cross-examining with other chains, examining the text of the report… to claim you have more credibility in this regard is truly laughable.
The question is who has more credibility to make claims about Jesus. You are telling me that St. Paul didn't meet Jesus. Even if true, however, note the following:

Your prophet definitely didn't meet Jesus.

So I claim, vis-a-vis the Succession of Bishops, to draw my beliefs back to the first hand accounts of at least some eye witnesses.
You draw your beliefs about Jesus back to the first hand accounts of no eye witnesses.

Which one constitutes better evidence? Come on. You can say it. :p

I mean, just for a moment, let's forget about the fact that we're talking about Jesus and you think that your prophet received infallible truth from God through an angel.

Which one constitutes better evidence? Suppose there's a court case and there's a judge. Each of us has to prove our case. I bring forward the testimony of some eye witnesses. You bring forward the testimony of no eye witnesses. I'm pretty sure that some is more than none, and, as such, constitutes a stronger case.

And note, this is evident prior to any commitment to Catholic or Muslim belief. Just try to look at both sides as an impartial observer, and not as a religious person. These people (the Catholics) purport some eye witnesses. The Muslims purport none. If you didn't already have religious commitments, which would you be inclined to believe solely on the basis of the evidence?

Consider a different case. I believe, on the basis of American historical tradition, what I have learned in school, what people claim to read from prior accounts, etc., that George Washington was the first president of the United States. Suppose someone should come up to me and claim, on the grounds that an angel revealed it to him, that this wasn't true. There is a distinct possibility that I would laugh in his face.

Muslims believe that Jesus :as: was a Prophet of God to whom a revelation was revealed. However, this revelation was not preserved. This does not mean that there is absolutely no truth left in the gospels extant today. The criterion then, for deciding what is true from the Bible and what isn't, is the Qur'an, God's final message to mankind which He promised to protect.

There are a number of reasons why Muslims might quote from the Bible. For example, Muslims believe that the Prophet Muhammad :saws: was prophecised in former scriptures. Therefore there is a discussion about such a prophecy in the Bible. Also, since Christians don’t accept the Qur’an as the Word of God, sometimes the Bible is used to discuss with Christians based on their own teachings and in order to stimulate a more unbiased understanding. The Bible is also used to demonstrate to Christians the flaws in their foundation and to challenge them with regards to the claims that they preach to Muslims. Some ex-Christians have even stated that the Bible led them to Islam.
Fair enough. I mean, I ultimately think that your view is erroneous, but I understand the view that you are indicating.
Reply

Traditio
07-27-2015, 01:39 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Muhammad
Islam

You are willing to believe that God can turn into a man, suffer at the hands of His own creation and be killed in a torturous death, yet find it strange that an angel can descend with revelation. Why do you overlook the teaching of your Bible, where we find angels involved in communicating God’s message? See for instance: Acts 7:38, 53; Gal 3:19; Heb 2:2.
Admin, I freely admit, abstractly considered, the possibility. Were I not a Christian, I would admit that it is possible that an angel of God spoke to your prophet (since I am a Christian, I must maintain that it is impossible, since truth cannot contradict truth). I do not fault you, who are not a Christian, for believing in the possibility. Note, however, that "it's possible" is not a good reason to believe something. The Loch Ness Monster and Bigfoot are possible. I don't believe in either.

In order to make a sound transition from believing that something is possible to believing that something is actual, i.e., actually is the case, there has to be some kind of evidence. Abstractly considered, could an angel have spoken to your prophet? Sure. Is it particularly likely? No. Furthermore, given the nature of the claim, the standard of evidence is fairly high. [Note that it takes "more likely than not" to win a civil suit in the United States.] I want to put this in perspective, Admin:

What reason would a Jew have to believe? Tradition holds that God Himself wonderfully led them out of Egypt, worked wonders for them in the desert for 40 years, miraculously obtained victory for them over their enemies, and publically revealed the Law to them at Mt. Sinai. Evidence? The paschal feast and the (Aaronic and Levitical) priests are evidence, for starters. Have you read the books of the Law (the first five books of the Old Testament)?

What reason does a Christian have to believe? Eye witness accounts that somebody, who in turn had raised others from the dead, himself rose from the dead and appeared to them over the course of several weeks, after which He ascended into heaven. Evidence? The Bible, Sacred Tradition and the Catholic Mass.

Please explain how we could know about details regarding Paradise, Hell, the Day of Judgement, the angels and devils, and about the countless details of how we should worship God, all on our own? Which false things?
Well, for starters, the alleged "details regarding Paradise, Hell, the Day of Judgement, the angels and devils, and about the countless details of how we should worship God." Not to mention your prophet's views on marriage, divorce and truthfulness. :P

A propos of Hell: Seriously. What's up with the Zaqqum? Do you really believe that? In the literal sense? How?

I’m not sure where you got this from. Ibn Rushd set out to show that there is no incompatibility between religion and philosophy when both are properly understood. He used Quranic injunctions to reflect upon and to observe Allah’s signs as an injunction to philosophize. I find it difficult to believe he could have such a low opinion of Islam when he was a Maliki Jurist (Qadi). By his own account, he took 20 years to produce Bidayat al-Mujtahid wa Nihayat al-Muqtasid, his primary work of fiqh. Despite his enemies' charges to the contrary, Ibn Rushd did not attempt to subvert religion using philosophy, but rather used analytical methods to better understand the message and tenets of Islam.
Averroes: 1. affirmed the eternity of the world and 2. denied the immortality of the human soul. What does your prophet say?

This can only be said by one so ignorant of Islamic teaching and history.
You cannot be a good Muslim and a good philosopher. My evidence for this is the difference, on the one hand, between Avicenna and Averroes, on the one hand, and Al Ghazali, on the other hand. In the end, either the Muslim must throw away the books of Plato and Aristotle, or else, he must throw away his Quran (note that even Avicenna, though less willing to attack Islamic doctrine, quietly rejects parts of it in his Metaphysics of the Healing: the sufferings of Hell and the joys of paradise, as described by your prophet, he says, actually will happen, but only for non-philosophers, and it will be purely imaginary). You'll tell me that medieval Arabia was an intellectual oasis. I'll grant this freely. St. Thomas Aquinas owed an incredible debt to Averroes and Avicenna, and I consider them both to have contributed greatly to the history of philosophy. But what's happened since then? Islamic philosophy is all but dead. Al Ghazali has basically won. If you take your start from philosophical inquiry, there is absolutely nothing that would lead you to accept Islam. The only way that a Muslim philosopher arises is if he is already a Muslim and then decides to start doing philosophy. Invariably, he is led to deep embarrassments. Historically, this is just true.

Compare this to the fact that Neoplatonists flocked to Christianity. Why? Because they recognized a need of reason that reason itself couldn't solve.

Here, a quote from a metaphysics lecture of mine is worth repeating (and, of course, I hope that you enjoy reading it; I'm rather fond of this bit of my writing):

If only, indeed, it were possible to 'see' the One (which is also the Good and the Beautiful), all of the desires of the heart would be brought to rest. Whatever is desired, we have learned, is desired under the description of 'good.'[1] Finite goods fail to satisfy us completely because we have a natural desire, a natural longing for infinite good. Only God, seen 'face to face,' can satisfy our natural longing for infinite good (because He alone is the infinite and subsistent Good). True and perfect happiness only can be found in the 'face to face vision' of God.[2]

'But how shall we find the way? What method can we devise? How can one see the ‘inconceivable beauty’ which stays within the holy sanctuary and does not come out where the profane may see it?'[3]

Spoken another way, how are we to approach a God 'who…inhabiteth light inaccessible, whom no man hath seen, nor can see'?[4]

Plotinus was too much of an optimist. He thought that we could attain to a vision of God by intense intellectual effort, contemplation and an ascetic life-style. The later Neoplatonists were not nearly as optimistic: they turned to theurgy (literally “working the gods”; pagan “religious” ritual magic involving statues and the like).[5] St. Augustine, I think, accurately describes the sad plight in which the later Neoplatonists found themselves:

'Whom could I find to reconcile me to you [the Lord]? Should I have approached the angels? What kind of prayer? What kind of rites? Many who were striving to return to you and were not able of themselves have, I am told, tried this and have fallen into a longing for curious visions and deserved to be deceived. Being exalted, they sought you in their pride of learning, and they thrust themselves forward rather than beating their breasts. And so by a likeness of heart, they drew to themselves the princes of the air, their conspirators and companions in pride, by whom they were deceived by the power of magic. Thus they sought a mediator by whom they might be cleansed, but there was none.'[6]

Only God, then, seen 'face to face,'[7] can make us truly happy. The creature, however, cannot 'storm heaven,' so to speak, and see God by his own efforts.[8] That utterly lies outside of his own power. God is infinite, and in His subsistent unity and being (esse) ('being' here understood in the Thomistic sense), He utterly transcends all creatures. Only God can make us happy, and we are utterly incapable of 'seeing' Him by our own natural efforts. [Note, of course, that even if human nature were 'perfect,' so to speak, in its own order, it would still be utterly incapable of seeing the infinite God. How much worse is our plight in fact, given the fact that humanity has fallen through original sin, and given that its natural powers have been obscured, disordered and darkened because of the Fall of our first parents, and given that 'all have sinned,' [9] and so deserve, not the sight of God, but everlasting punishment?][10]

The metaphysician, of course, can be sure that it must at least be possible to see God face to face. His innate desire for happiness and his natural desire to know causes attest to that. He also knows, however, that the possibility of such a vision utterly escapes the natural resources of the rational or intellectual creature. He cannot, by his own power, ascend to God. He must echo, then, the cri de coeur (cry of the heart) of the Prophet Isaiah, crying 'out of the depths'[11] to God:

'That thou wouldst rend the heavens, and wouldst come down…'[12]


[1] Common scholastic maxim; St. Thomas Aquinas repeats it.

[2] St. Thomas Aquinas, ST I-II, q. 3, a. 8.

[3] Plotinus, Enneads I.6.8.1-4.

[4] 1 Timothy 6:16.

[5] R.T. Wallis makes a note of this in Neoplatonism.

[6] St. Augustine, Confessions 10.42.67; I am quoting from the Barnes & Nobles edition, translated by Albert C. Outler).

[7] 1 Corinthains 13:12.

[8] St. Thomas Aquinas, ST I, q. 12, a. 4.

[9] Romans 3:23

[10] Romans 6:23; Matthew 25:41.

[11] Psalms 129:1 in the Vulgate and Douay Rheims; Psalms 130:1 in other editions.

[12] Isaiah 64:1.
You boast of a tradition because it is 2000 years old (if it can be proven that this is indeed the teaching of the apostles and actually coming from Jesus :as:).
Let's suppose for a moment that I can't prove that it's from Jesus. Nonetheless, it must be admitted that the tradition is 2000 years old and comes to us from an unbroken succession of bishops.

Yet the central message of Islam was the faith of the very first man who set foot on this earth.
According to Muslims. In point of fact, you can only really trace your religious beliefs back to your prophet, who lived in 7th century Arabia. There is literally no evidence that his views line up with the actual views of Moses, Noah, Adam, Jesus, or anyone else, except, of course, in the most general sense that your prophet taught that there is one God and that we should worship that one God. But then, in that sense, even the pagan Neoplatonists were Muslims, at this point, asserting that someone is a Muslim is pretty much trivial and not worth saying.
The Qur’an is the greatest miracle that the Prophet :saws: brought, which captivated even the most eloquent of people in the most eloquent of times, challenging them to produce a single chapter than would be comparable to it. Numerous other miracles were performed which are too many to list here. They include the splitting of the moon, various prophecies regarding the future, miracles related to the earth (water flowing from between his fingers, increasing the quantity of food and water, the palm tree yearning for him, stones greeting him), miracles related to animals, miracles related to his Companions and miracles related to the cure of disease, to name but a few.
1. Why don't you believe in the words of John Smith of the Mormon sect?

2. I'm unaware of these miracle accounts. Would you go into more detail about them and the sources from which you are getting your information about them?

Muslims across the globe recite the very Words of God as revealed to His Final Messenger :saws:. I find this to be a miracle occurring on a daily basis.
I could make the same claim about the Catholic mass. "Catholics across the globe, on a daily basis, witness a priest recite the very words of the Incarnate God on the night before he died." This is certainly evidence of something, but do you really want to claim that it's a miracle?

If you’ve reviewed the links above then I assume you already have some idea of what the evidences are. We can begin by considering two broad categories: the Prophethood of Muhammad :saws:, and the miracle of the Qur’an.

Regarding the first, whichever aspect of the life of the Prophet :saws: we study, we see evidence for the truth and credibility of his message. He was from a noble family and one who, from the beginning, demonstrated a virtuous character and was well-respected amongst his people. They called him ‘Al-Amin’ (the trustworthy) and considered his advice. This is a very important sign of the truth of his Prophethood as someone who has never lied to people would not lie regarding the Lord of the Worlds.
1. I'm inclined to deny that your prophet was virtuous, as does St. Thomas Aquinas (Summa Contra Gentiles, book I, chapter 6, paragraph 4). On this point, for example, your prophet's alleged marriages have always been criticized by Christian opponents, and I feel no need to go into more detail, especially since I'm not nearly educated enough on the matter to make conclusive arguments about it. [Though, even at first glance, the Zaynab affair (I mean "affair" in the general, non pejorative/moral sense), even considered by itself, alone would be sufficient, even were I not a Christian, to preclude me from ever entertaining the legitimacy of your prophet.]

2. Even if he was perfectly virtuous (even by my more strenuous Christian standards; Islamic morality has always been considered lax by Christians), this is no proof that he was divinely inspired. Here, I want you to consider the matter from my Christian perspective, and I'll be more "to the point": what evidence can you give me that cannot be explained either by natural explanations, or else, by the intervention of Satan and the devils/fallen angels (consider, e.g., Corinthians 1:20)? Granted that Satan and the fallen angels are not causes of virtue and good works, even naturally good and wise men can be deceived by the fallen angels, who are pure intelligences of much greater power and intellectual prowess than mere human beings. So let us suppose that natural explanations cannot explain what you are ascribing to your prophet (of which I am not convinced). What about Satanic influence? (Note, I am not asserting this positively; I simply am asking what evidence you have to believe otherwise.)

"Put you on the armour of God, that you may be able to stand against the deceits of the devil. [12] For our wrestling is not against flesh and blood; but against principalities and power, against the rulers of the world of this darkness, against the spirits of wickedness in the high places" (Ephesians 6:11-12).

You make an accusation that he was deluded or insane. If examined, this claim does not stand whatsoever. The Prophet :saws: displayed no symptom of insanity at any time in his life. No friend, wife, or family member suspected or abandoned him due to insanity. To the contrary, they viewed him as an example to be followed and found from him a solution to their problems. The Prophet :saws: preached for a long time and brought a Law unknown in its completeness and sophistication to an ignorant society. If he was insane, it would have become obvious to those around him in the decades of his teaching. When in history did an insane man preach his message to worship One God for ten years, three of which he and his followers spent in exile, and eventually became the ruler of his lands? Which insane man has ever won the hearts and minds of people who met him and earned the respect of his adversaries? Delusion cannot explain the detailed legal codes and rulings that would be followed by millions over centuries, providing guidance in all areas of life including divorce, inheritance, finance, moral character and social justice. Delusion cannot explain 600 pages of revelation to an illiterate man that would be inimitable by the most talented around him, that would be memorised, recited and taught every day. Delusion does not explain the distinct difference that would come over him when he was receiving revelation, as witnessed by his Companions.
Again, why do you not believe in the words of John Smith of the Mormon sect? Your prophet doesn't hold the monopoly on "well respected and apparently virtuous people who claimed to be divinely inspired and produced written texts."

The second category of discussion is the Qur’an. For people who have no knowledge of the Arabic language and the science of Tajweed, it’s easy to make such remarks. Owning a book about the language is a far cry from actually knowing the language to appreciate it. Millions of Muslims are non-Arabs yet the impact the Qur’anic recitation has on them cannot be expressed in words.

We have a whole science in Islam dedicated to the recitation of the Qur’an. The pronunciation of letters, the degrees in tones, nasalization and the different qualities are so well documented in Arabic that the script comes together as a well-defined, well-oiled machine.

Remember that the Qur'an was not revealed to the Prophet :saws: as a book, nor was it dispersed or preached primarily in written form - it was through recitation that is was primarily received and dispersed. Even non-Muslims appreciate this point. The following is written by Michael Sells, a Professor of Religion who speaks about the Qur'an to non-Muslim readers:
As the students learn these Suras, they are not simply learning something by rote, but rather interiorizing the inner rhythms, sound patterns, and textual dynamics - taking it to heart in the deepest manner.

Gradually the student moves on to other sections of the Qur'an. Yet the pattern set by this early, oral encounter with the text is maintained throughout life. The Qur'anic experience is not the experience of reading a written text from beginning to end. Rather, the themes, stories, hymns, and laws of the Qur'an are woven through the life stages of the individual, the key moments of the community, and the sensual world of the town and village. Life is punctuated by the recitation of the Qur'an by trained reciters who speak from the minarets of mosques, on the radio, and from cassettes played by bus drivers, taxi drivers, and individuals.

Thus, anyone attempting to answer the challenge must produce for us a recitation - not just a written composition. So let us see if these critics can produce for us a recitation that matches the quality of such:
http://www.islamicboard.com/discover...ecitation.html
I checked out the other threads on this point, and I think I more fully understand what you are saying. The Quran apparently has a special "style" of composition which is neither poetic nor prose, and yet still conveys meaning, and apparently, nobody has been able to mimic the Quran's style.

That's very interesting, but as an outsider, I feel compelled to ask: "So what?" That's not proof of divine intervention. Apparently, the Quran makes the claim, according to another thread, that even humans and djinn (which, for the record, I have no reason to believe even exist), working together, could not produce something similar. The evidence for this is that all attempts so far have been failed. But let us suppose that no human being can produce something similar. The fact that no human being has succeeded or can succeed (let us suppose) does not prove that a fallen angel couldn't do it. Why shouldn't I think that the Quran was produced by Satan?

If you tell me that the Quran says many true things, then I'll answer you that Satan quoted the Hebrew scriptures to Jesus when He fasted in the desert.

[Note, of course, that I do not say this to cause offense; any person of any religious faith should ask himself such questions: why should I believe this? Why can't this be explained by natural or human causes? Granted that it's supernatural, why shouldn't I think it's a demonic hoax? In the case of Jesus, I answer: I believe on the authority of the testimony of the Catholic bishops. Resurrection from the dead and ascension into heaven cannot be explained by natural or human causes. Even if it could be a demonic hoax, I nonetheless see a need of reason for something like the Incarnation, passion and death of Jesus to happen. I need an intermediary (because God alone can satisfy the desires of the heart, and I can't attain Him on my own; for this, a participation in the inner life of God, able to be effected only by the love of charity, is necessary) and a savior (because of the infinite debt of Justice that I owe to God and my unending merit for punishment and condemnation because of my sins). I am in need of divine grace, both because of the natural limits of human nature, and also because of my woundedness, my fallenness, because of my sins. This is evident from natural reason. Consider, again, the fact that in the relatively early Church, Platonism was considered a kind of "halfway house," so to speak, to Christianity.]
Reply

Traditio
07-27-2015, 02:28 AM
One final point, Admin, which deals both with the headings "Islam" and "Apostolic Succession."

It is granted, I assume, that the OP is directed to a Christian audience. Alright. Well, here's a further hindrance from me entertaining the words of your prophet. I'm sure that you're aware that, in U.S. criminal law, before a case ever goes to the trial, a judge has to determine whether or not there's even a case to be made. Let us, therefore, step back for a moment and forget about the evidence which is to be presented at the "trial," so to speak, of your prophet.

Is there even a case to be made? What possible purpose could a new revelation, after Jesus, possibly serve, whether be to your prophet or to anyone else? In the Summa Theologiae I-II, q. 98, a. 6, corp., St. Thomas indicates the reason for the Old Law being given when it was given:

For man was proud of two things, viz. of knowledge and of power. He was proud of his knowledge, as though his natural reason could suffice him for salvation: and accordingly, in order that his pride might be overcome in this matter, man was left to the guidance of his reason without the help of a written law: and man was able to learn from experience that his reason was deficient, since about the time of Abraham man had fallen headlong into idolatry and the most shameful vices. Wherefore, after those times, it was necessary for a written law to be given as a remedy for human ignorance: because "by the Law is the knowledge of sin" (Romans 3:20). But, after man had been instructed by the Law, his pride was convinced of his weakness, through his being unable to fulfil what he knew. Hence, as the Apostle concludes (Romans 8:3-4), "what the Law could not do in that it was weak through the flesh, God sent [Vulgate: 'sending'] His own Son . . . that the justification of the Law might be fulfilled in us."
Again, consider St. Thomas Aquinas' arguments (ST I-II, q. 98, a. 3, corp.) for the Old Law fittingly being given through the ministry of the angels:

The Law was given by God through the angels. And besides the general reason given by Dionysius (Coel. Hier. iv), viz. that "the gifts of God should be brought to men by means of the angels," there is a special reason why the Old Law should have been given through them. For it has been stated (1,2) that the Old Law was imperfect, and yet disposed man to that perfect salvation of the human race, which was to come through Christ. Now it is to be observed that wherever there is an order of powers or arts, he that holds the highest place, himself exercises the principal and perfect acts; while those things which dispose to the ultimate perfection are effected by him through his subordinates: thus the ship-builder himself rivets the planks together, but prepares the material by means of the workmen who assist him under his direction. Consequently it was fitting that the perfect law of the New Testament should be given by the incarnate God immediately; but that the Old Law should be given to men by the ministers of God, i.e. by the angels. It is thus that the Apostle at the beginning of his epistle to the Hebrews (1:2) proves the excellence of the New Law over the Old; because in the New Testament "God . . . hath spoken to us by His Son," whereas in the Old Testament "the word was spoken by angels" (Hebrews 2:2).
In brief summation, consider the words of St. John's gospel: "For the law was given by Moses; grace and truth came by Jesus Christ" (John 1:12).

The Jewish revelation met a need: to give us a knowledge of sin and to convict us of our need for a savior. Being proud of our natural knowledge and our natural capacity for virtue, human beings were permitted to rely on their own natural powers...and fail. When they recognized their need for divine help, God gave them the Law through Moses, that they might know sin. Nonetheless, they were still deluded in their own natural capacity for virtue and right living. They thought that they, by their own power, could fulfill the Law.

So God gave them the Law. They were permitted to try to uphold the Law. And they failed.

The grace to fulfill the Law (and to attain the end of Divine Law, which is a right ordering to God), which can be effected only by charity/divine love, comes to us through Jesus, the Incarnate Divine Word.

So believed Christians for over 600 years before your prophet ever even saw the light of day, and so preached Catholic bishops throughout the world, at Jesus' commission to "spread the gospel to all nations."

If you tell me that your prophet was needed to preach to a barbarous and faithless people, then I'll answer you that the Church already has commission to preach to all nations.

So before we even consider the evidence, why should I even entertain the possibility that your prophet might have spoken truly? What possible purpose could further revelation serve, given the coming of Jesus Christ? I believe that God has revealed Himself in the person of the Incarnate Word, who is the One High Priest, the One Mediator, the One Sacrifice for sins. What possible need could we have of further public revelation, when we have the Incarnate Word, in whom God the Father has uttered all that He has to say (as the Catholic Catechism puts it), who has promised to be with the Church "for all ages, even until the end of time"? [Note, for your prophet to tell me otherwise, I have to sit down and listen to him in the first place; on our hypothesis, I'm not even there yet. Your prophet presupposes that Jesus has come, in some fashion or other, and that the gospels were once books of uninterpolated revelation; he claims, I assume, that interpolations came later. Yet, when I already have the traditions handed down to me by the Church, what cause have I to listen to your prophet, who wasn't even around until about 600-700 years later? At this point, your claims about your prophet's manner of living and the literary qualities of the Quran simply ring hollow. He assumes that I am a Christian, before he even opens his mouth to speak, and then wishes to persuade me that the beliefs, which I already hold, are wrong. Then where are his proofs? If he brings forth misinterpretations of Christian doctrine and faulty arguments, then I can only treat him with the same contempt and disregard (no offense intended) as I would a Manichaeus, a Nestorius, a Sabellius or an Arius. Will he say that he has for his support the words of an angel? Then I will answer him with the words of St. Paul: "But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach a gospel to you besides that which we have preached to you, let him be anathema" (Galatians 1:8). And in explanation, I'll go on: "And no wonder: for Satan himself transformeth himself into an angel of light" (2 Corinthians 11:14).] And granted that I listen to your prophet, why on earth should I think that your prophet has the last word? Why shouldn't I look for some further revelation elsewhere? You assert that Christianity was obsolete less than 700 years into the game, but your prophet lived roughly 1300-1400 years ago.

Addendum: It's just been brought to my attention that the founder of Mormonism is Joseph Smith, not John Smith.
Reply

Futuwwa
07-27-2015, 11:32 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by BelieverOfTruth
It is ironic that you quote Bible verses from a Bible you believe to have been corrupted to "prove" that Jesus was not God. But I am glad you did. Christians do not claim that God is not one, in fact they claim that God IS one. More specifically, Christians claim that God is three parts that make up the one. How is this possible you may ask? You yourself have a physical body, a mind, and a spirit - you are three! That does not make you three separate entities, but three-in-one. Similarly, God can be viewed in this way also, he is the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, all three are inseparable and work in perfect unity. So there are no grumbles with the verses in the Bible that say that God is one, because we fully believe that.
So essentially you've defined the Trinity in such a way that it's scripturally unfalsiflable. No matter what the Bible would say God and/or Jesus is or isn't, it would be consistent with your theology, since God is simultaneously everything. Bloody convenient that.
Reply

Muhammad
07-30-2015, 11:45 PM
Greetings,


Trinity

The fact that a doctrine is formally expressed in a council, in and of itself, is not an indication that the doctrine wasn't held previously.
The fact that you need to express a fundamental teaching formally (which the entire faith is based upon) three hundred years after the teacher has come and gone clearly indicates that doctrine wasn’t held previously.

Nonetheless, the Council didn't define a new doctrine. It's something that was already part of the deposit of the Faith, vis-a-vis Sacred Tradition (i.e., the tenets of the Catholic Faith handed down to us through the succession of bishops in communion with the Roman Pontiff). It only need to be defined by a Council because large numbers of protestant heretics were denying what Catholics already believed.
If Nicaea just formalized the prevalent teaching of the church, then why all the conflicts? If it were the established teaching of the church, then you would expect people to either accept it, or not be Christians. It was not the established teaching, and when some faction of the church tried to make it official, the result was major conflict. What may be heretical today is because the other side won and wrote history.

It was a theological power grab by a faction of the church. A major complication throughout all this was that the emperors were involved and directed the outcome. At Nicaea it was Constantine that decided the outcome. Then we have the flip-flopping of opinion with the result that Athanasius is exiled and recalled depending on who is in power. In 357 AD the declaration that homoousios and homoiousios are unbiblical, and that the Father is greater than His subordinate Son. This is 180 degrees from Nicaea.

Trinitarian belief predates the Council of Nicea, as is evident from the fact that it was called in the first place. Generally, councils of the Church are only called when there are large disagreements or problems that need to be settled, generally because of new heresies that arise and need to be stamped out. Consider, e.g., the fact that transubstantiation was only formally defined (I think) in the Council of Trent (1500s AD, I think).
The Trinity is not some simple creed handed down by the apostles orally and written down only when heretics began causing problems. "Trinity" does not appear anywhere in the Old Testament or the New Testament. Even the phrase, "And these two are one" (First Epistle of John, Chapter 5, verse 7) is fabricated and based on the verse prior to it. [see: Revised Standard Version of the Bible, 1952 and History of Translations of Bible to the English Language, F. F. Bruce)

Seeing as even the wording concerning the trinity was formulated, it became evident that there was no ccriptural vocabulary which would correctly express the orthodox teaching.

The only reason, historically speaking, that the Nicene-Constantinopolitan-Chalcedonian Trinity won is that those who defended it throughout its development were more successful in politicking and excommunicating their opponents than the “heretics.” In the words of David Christie-Murray, “Heresy, a cynic might say, is an opinion held by a minority of men which the majority declares unacceptable and is powerful enough to punish.”

There is no explanation of how the clear statements of radical monotheism found in the Old Testament could be reread in light of this new understanding of plurality. If the Trinity were part of what the apostles taught, then we should find at least one community in either Palestine or the Diaspora that struggled to accept this new doctrine of God. To think that the early Church debated over accepting the Gentiles, keeping the Law, how to keep communion, the role of women in the Church, yet never once had any trouble at all accepting that God is now three instead of one is absurd.

Trinitarian belief clearly did not ‘predate’ Nicaea when we see how, together with other doctrines, it was further refined in later councils and writings. Below are a number of these councils and a summary of some key outcomes. Take note of the doctrinal changes as these will be relevant to the discussion on apostolic succession.

FIRST COUNCIL OF NICAEA (325) - defining against Arius the true Divinity of the Son of God (homoousios)
FIRST COUNCIL OF CONSTANTINOPLE (381) - To the above-mentioned Nicene Creed it added the clauses referring to the Holy Ghost (qui simul adoratur) and all that follows to the end.
COUNCIL OF EPHESUS (431) - defined the true personal unity of Christ, declared Mary the Mother of God
COUNCIL OF CHALCEDON (451) - defined the two natures (Divine and human) in Christ
THIRD COUNCIL OF CONSTANTINOPLE (680-681) - It put an end to Monothelitism by defining two wills in Christ, the Divine and the human, as two distinct principles of operation.
SECOND COUNCIL OF NICAEA (787) - regulated the veneration of holy images.
FOURTH LATERAN COUNCIL (1215) - offered additional definitions on the absolute unity of God, and presented definition of the doctrine of the Church regarding sacraments, and in particular that the bread and wine, by transubstantiation, become the Body and Blood of Christ.
FIRST COUNCIL OF LYONS (1245) - defined that the Holy Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father and the Son. The discipline governing the election of the pope was formulated.
The Council of Ferrara-Florence (A.D. 1438 - 1439) This was convened to unite the Greeks and other oriental sects with the Latin Rite. It was defined that "the Holy Apostolic See and Roman Pontiff hold the primacy over all the world; that the Roman Pontiff is the successor of Peter, prince of the Apostles; that he is the true vicar of Christ, the head of the whole Church, the Father and teacher of all Christians."
FIFTH LATERAN COUNCIL (1512-1517)
It defined the Pope's authority over all Councils and condemned errors regarding the human soul, namely, that the soul with its intellectual power is mortal.
COUNCIL OF TRENT (1545-1563)
The doctrine of original sin was defined; the decree on Justification was declared against the Lutheran errors that faith alone justifies and that the merits of Christ; the doctrine of the sacraments of Penance and Extreme Unction was defined; decrees relating to the censorship of books were adopted; the doctrine of Christian marriage was defined and decrees on Purgatory and indulgences adopted.
FIRST VATICAN COUNCIL(1869-1870) - the council decreed the infallibility of the pope when speaking ex cathedra, i.e. when as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole Church.

A real distinction of relationships doesn't imply a real distinction of parts in the substance of the thing in question. Consider, e.g., that a given man both may be a father and a son. Nonetheless, the plurality of real relationships which hold true of that one man don't correspond to a real ontological plurality (of parts) in that man. The being of a relationship isn't in something, but towards something. Because the man is a father, he is related to something else, i.e., to his son.
The problem is that you assert all of the entities involved in the relationship are within one ‘divine being’ which is indivisible. Yet in your example of a man having numerous relationships to others, all of those entities exist separate and external to him, which is by default what many understand and what is implicated in the trinity. Hence the term "person" is used to describe each of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit because each displays attributes of personhood. Each has a will, speaks, loves, is self-aware, and is aware of others.

For one thing to be related to another, that other exists independently and separately from the first. A man can neither be his own father nor his own son. It doesn’t make sense to have a situation where one thing can have real relationships and still consider there is only one entity involved. The only way for one thing to be related to itself is to exist as parts, which you also reject as part of trinitarian belief.
What we are talking about is not three Gods, but a single God who knows and loves Himself, and for whom knowledge and love find expression in the persons (as subsistent relationships) of the Trinity.
Knowing and loving oneself is completely different to what you say earlier about there being three separate “persons” in one divine “substance.” Your notion of a triadic relationship fails here because the two relata are one and the same. That is not the concept of God you claim to believe in.
This is why the persons of the Trinity are irreducibly distinct, and yet are not distinct divine beings.
Refer to above about believing in a contradiction.
Yes and no. It's the same as when one thinks about a father. Yes, father and son are distinct (at least according to relation), and yet, fatherhood implies sonhood, and the other way around.
It’s not the same at all. When you think about your own father, you are not seeing your face but his, even though you know he has a son.
So, I'll begin by saying that Ahmed, Khalid and Ayman could be a single human being (i.e., one according both to essence and existence), presupposing that "Ahmed," "Khalid" and "Ayman" are names for numerically the same individual. Presumably, however, you intend to say that Ahmed, Khalid and Ayman are three numerically distinct individuals, who nonetheless equally participate in humanity.
Obviously the latter, in the same way that Christians preach the trinity as, ‘the Father is not the Son, the Son is not the Holy Spirit, and the Holy Spirit is not the Father.’
When, however, I assert that Father, Son and Holy Ghost are one God, I intend to assert the following. 1. There is only a single divine being. 2. Each person of the Trinity wholly possesses that singular divine being and that singular divine essence. In other words, each is God and, in particular, that one, single, same God. I.e., Father, Son and Holy Ghost do not indicate numerically distinct divine beings in the same way that Ahmed, Khalid and Ayman indicate numerically distinct human beings. They differ, not according to essence, nor according to being, but according to relation.
As soon as you differentiate between a ‘singular divine essence’ and the divine being, you have divided your God into parts. A ‘relation’ does not occupy space in the way that the Father, Son and Holy Ghost are persons present in different places.
I completely agree with what you are saying here. That would be a most grevious contradiction, and if Christians believed this, then I would have to side with you wholeheartedly in rejecting their doctrines as abhorrent to reason. [I must ask, at this point: where did you get this notion from? Does your prophet accuse Christians of believing this?]
It’s plain common sense.
We Catholics do not say that Jesus is divinity turned into humanity (as though he stopped being God and started being human). Jesus is God who has assumed, in the unity of His person, humanity. When we say that "the word became flesh," we mean that the Divine Word, remaining eternally as He is, took on a human nature and fully and really became a human being.
And that is exactly where the problem is. What you are saying is that Jesus is not just a man but was, in fact, both man and God (a God-Man). Yet the nature of God and the nature of man are wholly incompatible and therefore the two cannot coexist as one. Either the deity of Christ must be diminished by his humanity or his humanity must be elevated by his deity. Still, if he is diminished or elevated, he is no longer fully either. It’s like trying to fill a glass with milk up to the brim and then filling that same glass with an equal amount of water. This is impossible because both substances require the same full volume of the glass. The best one can do is to fill the glass with 50% of each milk and water, but that is not what the doctrine of God-Man requires.

There are other problems that arise from this God-Man hypothesis:


If Jesus had not really assumed human nature, he could not actually redeem humanity, since he seemed to be aloof from it. Yet if he had taken on human nature, did this not threaten his divinity from which salvation would necessarily come forth? But even if both ‘natures’ were maintained, how could they ever be joined to form one being? Would not a savior composed of two ‘natures’ almost resemble a monster, totally unlike a truly divine or truly human being? One can easily imagine that questions like these defied easy answers or simple solutions.
Hans Schwarz, Christology, (Grand Rapids, MI: Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1998), 138.

All of this confusion can be avoided if we understand Jesus as a human—a noble Prophet sent by God, granted miracles and a revelation. There is nothing complicated about that. On the other hand, your entire faith depends on a man dying for your sins, yet, if the whole Jesus did not really die, then the whole of your sins are not really paid for. Thanks be to God who would not leave us in such a predicament.

Because there are some things that we simply cannot know by our own power. There are some things that we simply have to take on faith. Consider, e.g., the stories that your mother tells you about when you were a baby. You accept this purely on her authority. Again, consider what you believe about your prophet. Did an angel talk to him? You can't know that through rational inquiry. You believe it on the [errant, I believe] testimony of others.

In the case of the Trinity, what we are talking about is the inner life of God. You'll accuse me of a cop-out. But I'll ask you to consider the following. What reason do we have to believe in God in the first place?
If Jesus was the authority here, that would be one thing, but such authority cannot be claimed.

Jesus taught that the Word of God is truth. God specifically says in Scripture that He wants men to come to a knowledge of this truth. If Christians are going to do so, then there must be an appreciation of what is logical and what is not. Otherwise, nonsense masquerading as spiritual truth will go undetected and the quality of people's lives will suffer as a result of believing it.

Typically when the trinity cannot be explained, the Trinitarian brings forth the language of mystery in order to retreat from the imposing threat of logic. Often, it is said, “How can we possibly expect to know the deep mysteries of God, being that we are mere mortals?” The response is that such an inquiry is not into the deep mysteries of who God is and how He works; rather, we are simply trying to determine if the model of the Trinity is contradictory in and of itself. It is not God who insists we think of Him in the terms used in this Trinitarian creed. Besides, is it even possible to genuinely believe in a contradiction? For example, if I honestly believe that I am both fat and thin at the same time and in the same sense, then would I go on a diet or not? The result of believing a contradiction is paralyzing. If I truly believed both that I should diet and that I should not go on a diet, then what is the result? Confusion. Thus, to facilitate faith in God, we would be wise to avoid defining God as a contradiction.

In all of what you presented above, it’s very clear (and by your own admission) that we are not dealing with reason or logic. Why cling to this theological conundrum? Why hold so tight to something that is so hard to comprehend?
Reply

Muhammad
07-30-2015, 11:57 PM
Apostolic succession

Protestants make similar arguments, i.e., that Catholics put "the tradition of men" over the "word of God." A simple overview of the vast plurality of protestant sects, and their vastly different interpretations of the Sacred Scriptures and their corresponding beliefs, however, ultimately shows that what you are suggesting isn't quite right.
If you are saying belief in the apostolic succession ensures no disagreement, we need to consider Roman Catholic and Orthodox churches. Both have valid holy orders and apostolic succession through the episcopacy. Both of them agree that ecumenical councils have the ability to infallibly define doctrines. And yet, they have differences in their theology and various other issues. Examples of this are the filioque clause (the famous cause of the Great Schism of 1054) and different beliefs about Mary.

It is precisely because my belief in the Sacred Scriptures is grounded in my belief in the authority of the Catholic Bishops, and the Sacred Tradition which they have handed on from the time of Jesus Christ and the apostles themselves, that I am quite sure that I have absolutely no leeway to "refuse to agree with their own scripture and interpret it according to their personal ideas." The sole authoritative interpreter of the Sacred Scriptures is the Church and Her magisterial (teaching) authority, and She cannot change it at whim, but simply hands on to us what She has always held for almost two thousand years.
The church fathers held to the view that scripture was the ultimate authority for the church and that every doctrine had to be verified from it. ‘Sacred Tradition’ is invalidated automatically if it contradicts the Bible, and it does. Catholic teachings such as purgatory, penance, indulgences, praying to Mary, etc., are not in the Bible. A customary reading of the Bible does not lend itself to such beliefs and practices. Instead, the Catholic Church has used ‘Sacred Tradition’ to extract out of the Bible whatever verses that might be construed to support their doctrines. Moreover, Catholics believe in ‘doctrinal development’, so there is no such thing as simply handing down ‘what she has always held for almost two thousand years’.

For example, Catholics believe that Mary was conceived and born without sin and that she was ‘assumed’, body and soul, into heaven. This is truly a major dogma, yet there is no ccriptural proof for it, and even the Roman Catholic writer Eamon Duffy concedes that, ‘there is, clearly, no historical evidence whatever for it ...’ (Eamon Duffy, What Catholics Believe About Mary (London: Catholic Truth Society, 1989), p. 17).

For centuries in the early Church there is complete silence regarding Mary’s end. The first mention of it is by Epiphanius in 377 A.D. and he specifically states that no one knows what actually happened to Mary. He lived near Palestine and if there were, in fact, a tradition in the Church generally believed and taught he would have affirmed it. But he clearly states that ‘her end no one knows.’ (Epiphanius, Panarion, Haer. 78.10-11, 23. Cited by juniper Carol, O.F.M. ed., Mariology, Vol. II (Milwaukee: Bruce, 1957), pp. 139-40).

Patrologist Boniface Ramsey says that, ‘...we look in vain in many of the Fathers for references to things that many Christians might believe in today. We do not find, for instance, some teachings on Mary or the papacy that were developed in medieval and modern times.’ (Boniface Ramsey, Beginning to Read the Fathers (London: Darton, Longman & Todd, 1986), p. 6).

It gets worse. In the 9th century, a literary forgery occurred which completely revolutionized the ancient government of the Church in the West. It provided a legal foundation for the ascendancy of the papacy in Western Christendom. This forgery is known as the Pseudo–Isidorian Decretals, written around 845 A.D. The Decretals are a complete fabrication of Church history. There are many eminent Roman Catholic historians who have testified to this fact. Johann Joseph Ignaz von Döllinger, the most renowned Roman Catholic historian of the last century, who taught Church history for 47 years as a Roman Catholic, makes these important comments:


In the middle of the ninth century—about 845—there arose the huge fabrication of the Isidorian decretals...About a hundred pretended decrees of the earliest Popes, together with certain spurious writings of other Church dignitaries and acts of Synods, were then fabricated in the west of Gaul, and eagerly seized upon Pope Nicholas I at Rome, to be used as genuine documents in support of the new claims put forward by himself and his successors.

That the pseudo–Isidorian principles eventually revolutionized the whole constitution of the Church, and introduced a new system in place of the old—on that point there can be no controversy among candid historians.
The most potent instrument of the new Papal system was Gratian’s Decretum, which issued about the middle of the twelfth century from the first school of Law in Europe, the juristic teacher of the whole of Western Christendom, Bologna. In this work the Isidorian forgeries were combined with those of the other Gregorian (Gregory VII) writers...and with Gratia’s own additions. His work displaced all the older collections of canon law, and became the manual and repertory, not for canonists only, but for the scholastic theologians, who, for the most part, derived all their knowledge of Fathers and Councils from it. No book has ever come near it in its influence in the Church, although there is scarcely another so chokeful of gross errors, both intentional and unintentional
(Johann Joseph Ignaz von Döllinger, The Pope and the Council (Boston: Roberts, 1870), pp. 76-77, 79, 115-116).

You still claim that people have been ‘simply handing down’ the teachings of Jesus? Rather, what we can see is a blind submission to an institution which is unaccountable to either scripture or history. The presupposition of an infallible church is faulty. Historically, the Roman Church has clearly proven that it can and has erred and is therefore quite fallible.

It is the protestant, not the Catholic, who can be accused of playing fast and loose with scriptural interpretation and changing doctrine at whim. Should a bishop teach heresy, at odds with the received interpretation of the Scriptures, the Church Itself would say (as She has said in many councils): "That is not the tradition that you have received from me. Look and see, for this, and not what you say, is what I have always believed and handed on."
The groups that broke away from the Catholic Church did so because they believed errors had developed within the teaching of the Catholic Church, by comparing the scriptures with the teachings of the church and finding a difference between them. They chose to follow what they believed the scriptures were teaching as opposed to the church, thus saying they were clinging to that which was most surely original Christianity versus that which had evolved as the Catholic Church's expression of Christianity.

Can you point to any point in time, from the time of the apostles onwards, in which there have not been bishops who have claimed simply to be handing on a Sacred Tradition which they have received from others? If you wish to deny apostolic succession, then there is a simple way to do so: show me a breach in that succession...

It is, however, interesting that you want names and biographies. I have such a list just for the bishops of Rome.
The first thing to point out is that there was no such thing as a ‘pope’ in the early centuries. This is a simple historical fact recognized by historians. Joseph F. Kelly in his The Concise Dictionary of Early Christianity (The Liturgical Press, 1992), p. 2, notes, the word "pope" was not used exclusively of the bishop of Rome until the ninth century, and it is likely that in the earliest Roman community a college of presbyters rather than a single bishop provided the leadership.

Secondly, the problem with such a list as the one you’ve provided is that different sources say different things. Catholic apologists will often point to the list of Roman bishops that Irenaeus wrote late in the second century, because it aligns with the latest list that the Roman Catholic Church uses, but lists from other early sources contradict the list of Irenaeus. All of these lists come from the second half of the second century or later, and most likely were composed as a means of opposing heresy. In other words, lists of a succession of bishops going back to the time of the apostles would be composed in order to make the current bishops appear to have authority as successors of the apostles.

It should also be pointed out the earliest concepts of apostolic succession weren't the same as the concept the Roman Catholic Church embraces today. They recognised that the apostles had unique authority but no alleged apostolic successor could have as much authority as the apostles had. Morevoer, the early Church did not believe itself to be the ultimate authority, incapable of erring.


The Protestant historian Philip Schaff explains:

The oldest links in the chain of Roman bishops are veiled in impenetrable darkness. Tertullian and most of the Latins (and the pseudo-Clementina), make Clement (Phil. 4:3), the first successor of Peter; but Irenaeus, Eusebius, and other Greeks, also Jerome and the Roman Catalogue, give him the third place, and put Linus (2 Tim. 4:21), and Anacletus (or Anincletus), between him and Peter. In some lists Cletus is substituted for Anacletus, in others the two are distinguished. Perhaps Linus and Anacletus acted during the life time of Paul and Peter as assistants or presided only over one part of the church, while Clement may have had charge of another branch; for at that early day, the government of the congregation composed of Jewish and Gentile Christian elements was not so centralized as it afterwards became. Furthermore, the earliest fathers, with a true sense of the distinction between the apostolic and episcopal offices, do not reckon Peter among the bishops of Rome at all; and the Roman Catalogue in placing Peter in the line of bishops, is strangely regardless of Paul, whose independent labors in Rome are attested not only by tradition, but by the clear witness of his own epistles and the book of Acts.
(The Master Christian Library [Albany, Oregon: AGES Software, 1998], History of the Christian Church, Vol. 2, pp. 145-146)

Thirdly, when you ask for a breach in the succession, how is such a breach defined? Multiple factors could account for a breach:


  1. Time: In the list you’ve provided, you can see that there is no pope at all during the years 259, 305-307, 639, 1242, 1268-1271 (Almost 3 year period without a valid pope elected, due to a deadlock among cardinals voting for the pope), 1292-1294 (2 year period without a valid pope elected, due to a deadlock among cardinals voting for the pope), 1314-1316 (2 year period without a valid pope elected, due to a deadlock among cardinals voting for the pope), and 1415-1417 Pope Gregory XII was deposed as an ‘antipope’ - Two-year period without a valid pope elected. · The status of Antipope John XXIII was uncertain for hundreds of years, and was finally settled in 1958
  2. Simultaenous popes: Driven by politics, there was a split within the Roman Catholic Church from 1378 to 1417.Several men simultaneously claimed to be the true pope. Which pope was really the pope?
  3. Antipopes: Rome accepts that they have had antipopes that were accepted to the office of pope and gave influential change: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Antipope
  4. Mode of succession I: In the early Church the bishops were elected by faithful people and then consecrated by 2 or 3 bishops at least who were in the historic apostolic line of succession. If you read Cyprian, Didache, Clement of Rome, Tertulian, Gregory Nazianzen, Ignatius, Irenaeus you will see that bishops had to be chosen and approved by the popular consent first and then consecrated by other bishops. RCC and EOC have dispensed with such practice long time ago and only bishops choose other bishops without apostolic tradition and practice of the early church.
  5. Mode of succession II: According to some church scholars / historians, a number of popes have obtained their positions 1) by buying their office [a form of simony], 2) through the working of influential prostitutes, or 3) by the use of force, even murdering the previous pope! These facts are validated by some eye-opening books (written by Catholics or former Catholics), which include Peter De Rosa’s “Vicars of Christ: The Dark Side of the Papacy”; “Lives of the Popes” by Richard P. McBrien; Former Catholic priest Joseph McCabe and his “A History of the Popes”; J. H. Ignaz von Dollinger’s “The Pope and the Council”; and “The Decline and Fall of the Roman Church,” by Malachi Martin.
  6. Needing an Ecumenical Council to Jump-Start it. Among the tasks of the Council of Constance (considered the 15th Ecumenical Council by the Roman church) was to, in effect, decide who got to be pope, thereby ending a three-way dispute that had been on-going (link to discussion of council from a Roman Catholic perspective).
  7. Being deposed: Benedict IX was deposed twice and restored. His biography states: The nephew of his two immediate predecessors, Benedict IX was a man of very different character to either of them. He was a disgrace to the Chair of Peter. Regarding it as a sort of heirloom, his father Alberic placed him upon it when a mere youth ... .

It goes on to relate: Taking advantage of the dissolute life he was leading, one of the factions in the city drove him from it (1044) amid the greatest disorder, and elected an antipope (Sylvester III) in the person of John, Bishop of Sabina (1045 -Ann. Romani, init. Victor, Dialogi, III, init.). Benedict, however, succeeded in expelling Sylvester the same year; but, as some say, that he might marry, he resigned his office into the hands of the Archpriest John Gratian for a large sum. John was then elected pope and became Gregory VI (May, 1045). Repenting of his bargain, Benedict endeavoured to depose Gregory. This resulted in the intervention of King Henry III. Benedict, Sylvester, and Gregory were deposed at the Council of Sutri (1046) and a German bishop (Suidger) became Pope Clement II. After his speedy demise, Benedict again seized Rome (November, 1047), but was driven from it to make way for a second German pope, Damasus II (November, 1048).(source for biography)

  1. Being outrageously sinful? Alexander VI was another pope who allegedly obtained his position through simony, but that's not perhaps the worst of it. He not only openly acknowledged his children (yes, of course he was not married), but even used his political strength to try either to benefit or exploit them.



Do you wish to deny that the Catholic mass has been celebrated from the time of Jesus Christ all the way to the present day? Then show me a time in between in which the Catholic mass wasn't celebrated.
The meaning of such a ritual and the manner in which it is done has changed over the course of time, so this doesn’t prove anything. On this topic, how anyone can presume to say that their ‘god’ should place himself in the hands of a mortal man, as a victim in hands of a priest, and that by three or four words pronounced by the priest a real and sudden change occurs such that it becomes the real ‘body and blood’ of their ‘god’, which is then eaten, really is quite shocking.

Putting such a disturbing thought aside, the topic of the mass further goes to show that "church tradition" does not lead to unity because the Roman Catholic and Orthodox churches (both of whom claim their different practices are based upon traditions that date back to the apostles) are irrevocably and bitterly divided over the Eucharist. Transubstantiation only became official Catholic doctrine in 1215 AD, further illustrating the ever-changing doctrine of the church.

The key words are "by divine institution." It takes an act of faith to believe that the bishops have received the deposit of faith and are handing on that deposit of faith by divine commission. I'm not sure that it takes an act of faith, however, to believe the fact that there is such an unbroken line of bishops, i.e., that there have always been people who have claimed to hold such an office. I mean, you can simply deny that the bishops are conveyers of divinely revealed truth and have a special office instituted by Jesus Christ. That's not the same thing as denying that there have always been bishops since the time of Jesus' apostles.
The quote makes it clear that the unbroken line of bishops is not supported by history. Let me quote it for you again: ‘Neither the New Testament nor early Christian history offers support for a notion of apostolic succession as “an unbroken line of episcopal ordination from Christ through the apostles down through the centuries to the bishops of today...
You are conflating two distinct ideas:

1. The bishops have conveyed divinely revealed truth vis-a-vis Sacred Tradition.
2. The bishops were and are impeccable (sinless).

The affirmation of 1 and the denial of two aren't mutually exclusive. I can assert that St. Peter and the other apostles were sinners, and yet Jesus appointed him and them to positions of teaching authority and entrusted him and them with a deposit of divine revelation
Both of these points are directly related. Having a physical line of successors does not guarantee faithful transmission of proper doctrine. There may well have been people who were directly taught by apostles (or even Jesus, Himself) who fell away from the faith. But the simple fact that even an apostle (Judas) could abandon the faith demonstrates that someone at any point in this line could have abandoned the faith and believed in false doctrine / heresy, thus destroying the Catholic view of apostolic succession. At least one “legitimate” pope has been officially condemned (with anathema) as a heretic by an ecumenical council. See here: http://www.christiantruth.com/articles/pope.html

One has to ask, how valid is an “apostolic line” that contains heretics? If someone is a heretic, then BY DEFINITION, he is not believing apostolic doctrine. And if he is not believing apostolic doctrine, then he can’t be called apostolic. Such an “apostolic” succession without proper doctrine is meaningless.

Furthermore, the New Catholic Encyclopedia (1967) admits: “But it must be frankly admitted that bias or deficiencies in the sources make it impossible to determine in certain cases whether the claimants were popes or antipopes.” (Volume I, page 632)

Furthermore, are we talking about prior or posterior to Pentecost and the descent of the Holy Ghost upon the apostles?
Neither. An alleged ‘descent of the holy ghost’ means nothing here. We are talking about this from a historical perspective, not a faith-based one.

At any rate, even if St. Paul "didn't even meet Jesus" prior to Jesus' passion and death, so what? I don't ground my beliefs solely in the authority of St. Paul. There's also the matter of the eleven apostles (I'm not counting Judas) who did meet Jesus.
Christians gloss over the fact that Paul never even met Jesus while he was on earth and yet he claims to know the 'gospel' better than those disciples who did follow and listen to his Message while he walked among them. His 'gospel' was fundamentally different from the 'gospel' that Peter preached as the 'Apostle to the Jews' as illustrated by the first 2 chapters of Galatians. Paul's influence on Christian thinking arguably has been more significant than any other New Testament author (Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church ed. F.L. Lucas (Oxford) entry on St. Paul). There is little doubt that most of Christianity relies heavily on his teachings to the extent that some even regard him as the ‘founder of Christianity’.

The question is who has more credibility to make claims about Jesus. You are telling me that St. Paul didn't meet Jesus. Even if true, however, note the following:

Your prophet definitely didn't meet Jesus.

So I claim, vis-a-vis the Succession of Bishops, to draw my beliefs back to the first hand accounts of at least some eye witnesses.
You draw your beliefs about Jesus back to the first hand accounts of no eye witnesses.
You are confusing different issues here to create an invalid argument. The use of witnesses by both Christians and Muslims are regarding different sources. Christians claim they have eyewitnesses dating back to Jesus. Muslims are saying they have witnesses directly linking back to the Prophet Muhammad :saws:. Nowhere have I said Muslims believe in the teachings of Jesus based on eyewitnesses dating back two thousand years.

Now, what granted Prophet Muhammad :saws: authority to make claims about Jesus was not a direct meeting between the two. As sister MuslimInshallah clarified earlier, it was the fact that he received revelation from God. The question of how we know this was revelation is dealt with under the subheading ‘Islam’.

I mean, just for a moment, let's forget about the fact that we're talking about Jesus and you think that your prophet received infallible truth from God through an angel.

Which one constitutes better evidence?
The Prophet Muhammad :saws: came with the final revelation from God. It still exists. We know what it is. On the other hand, there is not a single document from the time of Jesus that exists today. We only have "gospels" from one or two generations later, written by unknown authors. There are many contradictions in them and NONE of them are written in the language that Jesus spoke. NOT ONE!
You see, if you do not have one single, authentic document about the life of a Prophet of God, where can you get authentic information about that Prophet? The answer is from another Prophet of God. That is the only way you can guarantee its authenticity.
Reply

Muhammad
07-31-2015, 12:17 AM
Islam


(since I am a Christian, I must maintain that it is impossible, since truth cannot contradict truth). I do not fault you, who are not a Christian, for believing in the possibility. Note, however, that "it's possible" is not a good reason to believe something. The Loch Ness Monster and Bigfoot are possible. I don't believe in either.
We may as well abandon the ‘discussion’ if all you are planning to do is parrot Christian belief. By the way, the existence of a Loch Ness monster or Bigfoot are far, far easier to believe than your version of a god consisting of other gods who sacrificed himself to himself so he could change his own mind about what to do with man (!).

In order to make a sound transition from believing that something is possible to believing that something is actual, i.e., actually is the case, there has to be some kind of evidence. Abstractly considered, could an angel have spoken to your prophet? Sure. Is it particularly likely? No.
Assuming you reviewed the evidence already presented, based on what grounds do you say it’s unlikely? Because Thomas Aquinas said it?
What reason would a Jew have to believe? Tradition holds that God Himself wonderfully led them out of Egypt, worked wonders for them in the desert for 40 years, miraculously obtained victory for them over their enemies, and publically revealed the Law to them at Mt. Sinai. Evidence? The paschal feast and the (Aaronic and Levitical) priests are evidence, for starters. Have you read the books of the Law (the first five books of the Old Testament)?

What reason does a Christian have to believe? Eye witness accounts that somebody, who in turn had raised others from the dead, himself rose from the dead and appeared to them over the course of several weeks, after which He ascended into heaven. Evidence? The Bible, Sacred Tradition and the Catholic Mass.
All of this is based upon faith, no other evidence. Having a feast every year and priests telling you something happened is all very well if you’re a Jew. If you’re not a Jew, that’s a pretty shoddy way of presenting evidence. Moreover, if you’re willing to believe eyewitness accounts have survived two thousand years despite all of the political conflict and doctrinal changes, you have to accept with even more reason that the eyewitness accounts telling us about the Prophet Muhammad :saws: and his miracles are true. And that is because Muslims have something called the Isnad which I mentioned briefly earlier which is a lot more sophisticated than a Wikipedia list of supposed popes.
Well, for starters, the alleged "details regarding Paradise, Hell, the Day of Judgement, the angels and devils, and about the countless details of how we should worship God." Not to mention your prophet's views on marriage, divorce and truthfulness.
In other words, you only believe it’s false because your faith tells you to. That’s meaningless.

Averroes: 1. affirmed the eternity of the world and 2. denied the immortality of the human soul. What does your prophet say?
Even if, for the sake of argument, a medieval philosopher held unorthodox views about Islam, what does it prove? Nothing. It’s not like it was approved through a council of bishops and became official doctrine.

You cannot be a good Muslim and a good philosopher.
Even if true, so what? Greek philosophy corrupted the Christian concept of God. Islam is not in need of any philosopher to come and mould its theology because it is already pure and complete. Religion is the word of God, not the words of philosophers.

If you take your start from philosophical inquiry, there is absolutely nothing that would lead you to accept Islam. The only way that a Muslim philosopher arises is if he is already a Muslim and then decides to start doing philosophy. Invariably, he is led to deep embarrassments. Historically, this is just true.
This is coming from someone who believes Islam is false because their saint told them so. It's quite ironic in a discussion about philosophy and rational inquiry. Besides, I’m really not sure how this obsession with philosophy is relevant to the discussion...

Compare this to the fact that Neoplatonists flocked to Christianity. Why? Because they recognized a need of reason that reason itself couldn't solve.
What’s that supposed to even mean?

Here, a quote from a metaphysics lecture of mine is worth repeating (and, of course, I hope that you enjoy reading it; I'm rather fond of this bit of my writing):
Forgive me, but I fail to understand what point you are trying to make by quoting it.
Let's suppose for a moment that I can't prove that it's from Jesus. Nonetheless, it must be admitted that the tradition is 2000 years old and comes to us from an unbroken succession of bishops.
If you admit it isn’t from Jesus, then whose teachings have people been following for two thousand years?!
1. Why don't you believe in the words of John Smith of the Mormon sect?
I have no reason to. If you're looking for similarities, the Hindu trinity far predates the Christian one... does that mean you should adopt that instead?

2. I'm unaware of these miracle accounts. Would you go into more detail about them and the sources from which you are getting your information about them?
You can read all about them here: http://www.scribd.com/doc/70819778/T...ad-Ibn-Kathi-r

I could make the same claim about the Catholic mass. "Catholics across the globe, on a daily basis, witness a priest recite the very words of the Incarnate God on the night before he died." This is certainly evidence of something, but do you really want to claim that it's a miracle?
The Bible isn’t the very words of God (it wasn’t even written in the lifetime of this incarnate god you speak of). Neither is the mass in the language that Jesus spoke, so we’re nowhere near evidence here, let alone a miracle.
1. I'm inclined to deny that your prophet was virtuous, as does St. Thomas Aquinas (Summa Contra Gentiles, book I, chapter 6, paragraph 4).
Unfortunately, Thomas Aquinas demonstrates an extremely poor knowledge of Islam. If he is your window into Islam, you are doing yourself a great disservice. For instance, Islam does not give ‘free rein to carnal pleasure’, rather it closes all doors to immorality [Qur’an 23:5, 17:32, 16:90]. The clear and pristine message of Islam is evidence that it was not a doctrine based on superstitions, prevalent philosophy or the ramblings of men. The truth of the Prophet’s :saws: words was testified to even by Jews and Christians. He brought forth many supernatural signs. Many wise men believed in him from the beginning, including those who were well-respected and knowledgeable.
On this point, for example, your prophet's alleged marriages have always been criticized by Christian opponents, and I feel no need to go into more detail, especially since I'm not nearly educated enough on the matter to make conclusive arguments about it.
If one carefully examines the circumstances that surrounded each marriage, they will realise that the Prophet :saws: contracted marriages either to protect and support a widowed woman, or bring comfort to the families whose hearts were broken by the death of their beloved father, or to cement the bonds of love with the clan of his wives, or to honor a free woman who fulfilled Allah’s Command and went against the traditions of her society by marrying a slave rather than a master seeking the Good Pleasure of Allah. These wives went on to become female teachers who would convey to the nation what they had learned from the Messenger of Allah :saws: and what they knew of his private life.

Had the Prophet :saws: been lustful, he would have opted to marry when he was in his prime youth, yet he married several wives only after he had grown into old age. It should also be noted that all the women whom he (peace be upon him) married had been married previously, except ‘Aishah, may Allah be pleased with them all.

[Though, even at first glance, the Zaynab affair (I mean "affair" in the general, non pejorative/moral sense), even considered by itself, alone would be sufficient, even were I not a Christian, to preclude me from ever entertaining the legitimacy of your prophet.]
Let’s do ourselves a favour and go beyond a first glance. The story of Zaynab is actually a good piece of evidence for the genuineness of the Prophet :saws:, not for his insincerity like Orientalists and some Christian missionaries like to claim.

Zaynab bint Jahsh married Zayd ibn Hârith, a former slave of Khadîjah who the Prophet :saws: had freed and adopted as a son. This marriage had been arranged by the Prophet :saws: himself, but it ended in divorce.

The custom among the pagan Arabs was that an adopted son was like a person’s real son. He carried his adopted father’s name and inherited from him. Islam overturned that custom. Islam, we must understand, came to safeguard lineage. A man may adopt a child and take care of him, but that child cannot assume the lineage of his adopted father. He must retain his own family name.

By marrying Zaynab, the Prophet (peace be upon him) demonstrated in the clearest possible way that in Islam an adopted son is not the same as a natural son and that the guardian of an adopted son is permitted to marry a woman who was once married to that adopted son.

As for the verse revealed about this, Allah says (interpretation of meaning): “And (remember) when you said to him on whom Allah has bestowed grace and you have done a favor: ‘Keep your wife to yourself, and have fear of Allah.’ But you did hide in yourself that which Allah will make manifest, you did fear the people whereas Allah had a better right that you should fear Him. So, when Zayd had completed his aim with her, We gave her to you in marriage, so that there may be no difficulty to the believers in respect of the wives of their adopted sons when the latter have no desire to keep them. And Allah's command must be fulfilled.” [Sûrah al-Ahzâb: 37]

Ibn Jarîr narrated that `A’ishah said: “If Muhammad were to have concealed anything that was revealed to him of the Book of Allah, he would have concealed the verse: ‘But you did hide in yourself that which Allah will make manifest, you did fear the people whereas Allah had a better right that you should fear Him’.”

Allah had already revealed to him that Zaynab bint Jahsh was going to be one of his wives. The Prophet :saws: did not speak about this matter, fearing what people would say. Then Allah revealed this verse.

This verse is clearly not the statement of a false Prophet making up verses trying to justify his desires. If the Prophet :saws: had ulterior motives, he could have gone about the matter in a much more subtle way and gotten what he wanted. Instead, he was put on the spot to do something he otherwise would not have wanted to do.

This, however, was from Allah’s wisdom. If the Prophet :saws: had only said to the people that since adopted sons are not true sons, therefore men may marry the ex-wives of their adopted sons, it would not have had the same effect. Cultural practices and taboos are quite strong.
Edited from: http://en.islamtoday.net/quesshow-14-943.htm

2. Even if he was perfectly virtuous (even by my more strenuous Christian standards; Islamic morality has always been considered lax by Christians),
That’s strange. Christians neglect to follow their own teachings (e.g. women wearing head coverings) yet Muslim women are the ones covering themselves.
this is no proof that he was divinely inspired. Here, I want you to consider the matter from my Christian perspective, and I'll be more "to the point": what evidence can you give me that cannot be explained either by natural explanations,
If you read the paragraph responding to your accusation of delusion, there’s a lot there to get you started.
or else, by the intervention of Satan and the devils/fallen angels (consider, e.g., Corinthians 1:20)? Granted that Satan and the fallen angels are not causes of virtue and good works, even naturally good and wise men can be deceived by the fallen angels, who are pure intelligences of much greater power and intellectual prowess than mere human beings. So let us suppose that natural explanations cannot explain what you are ascribing to your prophet (of which I am not convinced). What about Satanic influence? (Note, I am not asserting this positively; I simply am asking what evidence you have to believe otherwise.)
Earlier you were casting aspersions regarding the concept of an angel bringing revelation. Now, somehow, the default position has become satanic intervention. Again, the same paragraph I mentioned previously is enough to show it cannot be the work of a devil. All you are doing is making blind accusations which can just as easily be turned around and applied to your faith.

Your prophet doesn't hold the monopoly on "well respected and apparently virtuous people who claimed to be divinely inspired and produced written texts."
I know. Many were the Prophets who were before him. But he is the last in succession and his scripture is the only one which has been preserved completely.
I checked out the other threads on this point, and I think I more fully understand what you are saying. The Quran apparently has a special "style" of composition which is neither poetic nor prose, and yet still conveys meaning, and apparently, nobody has been able to mimic the Quran's style.

That's very interesting, but as an outsider, I feel compelled to ask: "So what?" That's not proof of divine intervention.
Obviously if you pick out a few statements without considering the whole picture you are not going to appreciate much.

The fact that no human being has succeeded or can succeed (let us suppose) does not prove that a fallen angel couldn't do it.
There’s no such thing as a ‘fallen angel’.
Why shouldn't I think that the Quran was produced by Satan?

If you tell me that the Quran says many true things, then I'll answer you that Satan quoted the Hebrew scriptures to Jesus when He fasted in the desert.
The Quran makes it clear that Satan is our enemy and commands believers to perform righteous deeds. If you think Satan is disguising himself and pretending to attack himself only to deviate people from the true path, look at what the Bible says about Jesus when he refuted the Pharisees who accused him of casting out Satan with the power of Satan:

And the teachers of the law who came down from Jerusalem said, "He is possessed by Beelzebub[c]! By the prince of demons he is driving out demons."
So Jesus called them and spoke to them in parables: "How can Satan drive out Satan? If a kingdom is divided against itself, that kingdom cannot stand. If a house is divided against itself, that house cannot stand. And if Satan opposes himself and is divided, he cannot stand; his end has come. [Mark 3: 22-26]

In the case of Jesus, I answer: I believe on the authority of the testimony of the Catholic bishops. Resurrection from the dead and ascension into heaven cannot be explained by natural or human causes.
The people of Makkah asked the Prophet :saws: for a miracle and the moon was split into two parts. This also cannot be explained by natural or human causes. I believe this as it has been authentically passed on by his Companions and also mentioned in the Qur’an which has been fully preserved.
I am in need of divine grace, both because of the natural limits of human nature, and also because of my woundedness, my fallenness, because of my sins. This is evident from natural reason.
Everything you say here is not ‘evident from natural reason’ at all. These issues are being discussed in a separate thread so let’s not repeat the discussion here.

Is there even a case to be made? What possible purpose could a new revelation, after Jesus, possibly serve, whether be to your prophet or to anyone else?
If you appeal to revelations coming before others as being proof of legitimacy, then Judaism can use this same excuse to throw away Christianity. Jews did not view Jesus as the Messiah and do not accept their Torah as no longer being applicable. The Torah states that all mitzvot will remain binding forever, and anyone coming to change the Torah is immediately identified as a false prophet. (Deut. 13:1-4). So based on your reasoning here, you should give up Christianity and follow the law of Moses who came centuries before Jesus.

If you then assert that Christianity is valid because it abrogates the laws of the Old Testament, then Muslims equally hold that the law of Prophet Muhammad :saws: abrogates all those that precede it. So we learn that it isn’t about which revelation preceded which, rather it is the later revelations which are to be followed as these are chosen by God for specific peoples.

Now you can ramble on about failing to uphold the law and what your church fathers have said. But let’s talk about facts for a moment. Christians do not have the actual teachings of Jesus with them today. By your own admission, you place your faith in your church fathers and from the previous post, it’s pretty clear they haven’t done a good job of conveying the true teachings of Jesus. No two Christians can even agree on who God is, the nature of Jesus, which Bible to use, how to worship God, and the list continues. Considering the facts, there is a very obvious need for a Prophet from God to bring people back to the true religion.

The Bible and the Torah were not preserved, as they were entrusted to the care of their respective peoples who failed to uphold their complete teachings. The Qur’an criticises the Jews and Christians for changing the words from their right places and behaving treacherously with God’s verses, altering His Book from its apparent meanings which He sent down, and distorting its indications. They attributed to God what He did not say and abandoned a good part of the Message that was sent to them. Thus a new revelation, which was actually prophecised in former scriptures, was needed.

O People of the Scripture! Now has come to you Our Messenger explaining to you much of that which you used to hide from the Scripture and passing over much. Indeed, there has come to you from Allah a light and a plain Book.) (16. Wherewith Allah guides all those who seek His Pleasure to ways of peace, and He brings them out of darkness by His permission unto light and guides them to a straight path. [Qur’an 5: 15-16)

Jesus was not sent for the whole of mankind. As with previous Prophets, he was sent to his respective people. Even in the Bible, we find him being quoted as saying, ‘But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel’ (Matthew 15:24). This is also very apparent when one considers how his original words were not preserved and the fact that his miracles were primarily for his own people – bringing people back to life by God’s permission, healing the blind and the lepers by God’s permission etc. In the case of the Prophet Muhammad :saws:, he was to be the final Messenger and as such, his message was for the whole of humanity. This is evident in the fact that the revelation sent to him was promised to be preserved by God Himself, hence why we have the exact Qur’an (as revealed then) with us today. Not only this, but the major miracle granted to the Prophet Muhammad :saws: , which is also the Qur’an, is available to the whole of humanity to realise and appreciate today.

Will he say that he has for his support the words of an angel? Then I will answer him with the words of St. Paul: "But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach a gospel to you besides that which we have preached to you, let him be anathema" (Galatians 1:8). And in explanation, I'll go on: "And no wonder: for Satan himself transformeth himself into an angel of light" (2 Corinthians 11:14).]
You should direct that to the popes preaching a totally different gospel to that of Jesus. You quote Thomas Aquinas as saying, ‘The Law was given by God through the angels’, so let’s not be hypocritical and disregard the whole of Islam simply because we also believe in angels.
And granted that I listen to your prophet, why on earth should I think that your prophet has the last word? Why shouldn't I look for some further revelation elsewhere?
God chose to make the Prophet Muhammad :saws: His last Messenger. God honoured his nation and completed Islam on his hands. He made His last revelation trustworthy over every Divine Book that preceded it. It is the most encompassing, glorious and perfect Book of all times. The Qur'an includes all the good aspects of previous Scriptures and even more, which no previous Scripture ever contained.
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