format_quote Originally Posted by
maryam11
:sl:
My questions are:
- Why, when the rule states that Hamzat ul-Wasl requires a kasrah if the third letter is not an original dhammah, is there a dhammah on the third letter of the above example. i am thinking that because the dhammah on the third letter is followed by a madd letter (vowel), and we all know that the madd of waaw is preceeded by a dhammah and therefore it is necessary as the word wouldn't make sence. am i right in thinking this??
- Does this rule only apply to verbs?
- Does "whose third letter does not have an original dhammah" mean that a fathah or kasrah appear on the third letter?
anyways, i really need this.
jazakallahu khair
Assalamoalikom
dear sister....
First:
It is a great pleasure to find sisters like you who eager to learn Standard Arabic.....really I appreciate you and your efforts..
second :
the rules of (Hamzat ul-Wasl ) as follows:
A) : what is the meaning in Arabic of (Hamzat ul-Wasl)?
(A hamza which could be used as a tool to utter a sukoon or the hamza of the linking )
B) (sukoon) means (neutral sound) or in other words, it is not pronounced
( dammah) means the sound (o) like in the word (root)
(fathah) means the sound (A)
(Kasrah) means the sound (I) as in (breed)
why we use (Hamzat ul-Wasl )?
in Arabic we usually can't start the word with uttering (sukoon),and we can't finish uttering the word with (Harakah) with (dammah or fathah or Kasrah)
so what if a (sukoon) occured in the beginning? well,then we must use a tool to be able to utter the (sukoon) which occured in the beginning of the word, and such tool is (Hamzat ul-Wasl ).
third:
regarding your question:
1-(Hamzat ul-Wasl ).can never occur with the verb of present tense...but usually with past tense
.
2-
Hamzat ul-Wasl requires a( Dammah) if the third letter is an original dhammah
{فَمَنْ
اضْطُرَّ غَيْرَ بَاغٍ وَلا عَادٍ فَلا إِثْمَ عَلَيْهِ إِنَّ اللَّهَ غَفُورٌ رَحِيمٌ} سورة البقرة الآية: 173) .
{
ادْعُ إِلَى سَبِيلِ رَبِّكَ بِالْحِكْمَةِ وَالْمَوْعِظَةِ الْحَسَنَةِ وَجَادِلْهُمْ بِالَّتِي هِيَ أَحْسَنُ إِنَّ رَبَّكَ هُوَ أَعْلَمُ بِمَنْ ضَلَّ عَنْ سَبِيلِهِ وَهُوَ أَعْلَمُ بِالْمُهْتَدِينَ} سورة النحل الآية: 125) .
3- Hamzat ul-Wasl requires a kasrah if the third letter is not an original dhammah(if it has Kasrah or fathah)
{
اذْهَبْ إِلَي فِرْعَونَ إِنَّهُ طَغَى} (طه: 24)
{
ارجع إليهم فلنأتينهم بجنود لا قبل لهم} (النمل : 37)
now we focus on the question:
we mentioned before that Hamzat ul-Wasl requires a( Dammah) if the third letter is
an original dhammah
we have exception from the rule:
If the third letter is not original dammah, Hamzat ul-Wasl requires
kasrah not dammah
example: the verb {اقضوا}
{وَاتْلُ عَلَيْهِمْ نَبَأَ نُوحٍ إِذْ قَالَ لِقَوْمِهِ يَا قَوْمِ إِنْ كَانَ كَبُرَ عَلَيْكُمْ مَقَامِي وَتَذْكِيرِي بِآيَاتِ اللَّهِ فَعَلَى اللَّهِ تَوَكَّلْتُ فَأَجْمِعُوا أَمْرَكُمْ وَشُرَكَاءَكُمْ ثُمَّ لا يَكُنْ أَمْرُكُمْ عَلَيْكُمْ غُمَّةً ثُمَّ
اقْضُوا إِلَيَّ وَلا تُنْظِرُونِ} ( سورة يونس الآية:71 )
the third letter has not original dammah....it has it because it is followed by
the vowel (wa)( و) which is attached to the verb for the forming of plural......
the clear proof that the Dammah on the third letter is not original is that the verb in singular form ..follows the basic rule
Hamzat ul-Wasl requires a kasrah if the third letter is not an original dhammah(if it has Kasrah or fathah)
اقض
here the verb is sigular imperative and Hamzat ul-Wasl with kasrah because the third letter has kasrah....
your question:
Does "whose third letter does not have an original dhammah" mean that a fathah or kasrah appear on the third letter?
no ,no it means it has dammah ...but not original..as i explained above.....
for example the dammah due to changing the verb to plural etc.......
your question:
Does this rule only apply to verbs?
applies to most past tense forms and imperative ..but not present...
and with nouns usually Hamzat ul-Wasl requires a kasrah
examples:
افتراء
استكباراً
ابْنِي
ابْنَتَ
امْرَأَ
امْرَأَةٌ
اسْمَ
اثنين
Hope that helps
and any other questions ..ask me..
Allah bless