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Ummu Sufyaan
09-05-2007, 10:32 AM
:sl:
for the rule of Idghaam (merging), this is what i have read in my book.

The rule of idghaam is applied only to noon saakinah (and tanween) when it occurs at the end of a word. If the following word begins with one of the letters of idghaam, assimilation (idghaam) will take place.

But then further on it has: The quran contains four words in which noon saakinah occurs in the middle of a word and is folloed by waaw or yaa.

قنوان
صنوان
بنيان
دنيا
These do not follow the rule of idghaam rather the noon is proounce distinctly without ghunnah (i.e ithaar) wherver they appear.

So, is it just me, or do the above 2 paragraphs contradict one another. if noon saakinah only appears at the end of a word, then what do the four above words have to do with idghaam?? According to my understanding, the noon saakinahs shouldn't be affected because they do not occur at the end of the word, they occur in the middle.

:sl:

:sl:
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NoName55
09-05-2007, 11:23 PM
Wa alaikum Salam
So, is it just me, or do the above 2 paragraphs contradict one another.
first explain to me, i before e rule from English, then it will be easier for you to understand exceptions to the rules of other languages

wa salam alaikum
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Ummu Sufyaan
09-06-2007, 04:36 AM
:sl:
please explain, i am very confused?
:sl:
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Umm_Maysa
09-06-2007, 09:09 AM
Assalamualaikum sister,
MashaAllah you understand it correctly. Don't confused yourself..some of us may forget that the rule of idgham only occurs at the end of the word while they remember only the idgham letters. So then whenever noon sakinah followed by waaw or yaa, comes straight to ur mind the idgham rule.Also surah Al-Qalam and Yaa Seen we have to pronounce noon with ithaar when joining the words.Those four words we read with ithaar called ithaar mutlak..

format_quote Originally Posted by maryam11
:sl:
for the rule of Idghaam (merging), this is what i have read in my book.

The rule of idghaam is applied only to noon saakinah (and tanween) when it occurs at the end of a word. If the following word begins with one of the letters of idghaam, assimilation (idghaam) will take place.

But then further on it has: The quran contains four words in which noon saakinah occurs in the middle of a word and is folloed by waaw or yaa.

قنوان
صنوان
بنيان
دنيا
These do not follow the rule of idghaam rather the noon is proounce distinctly without ghunnah (i.e ithaar) wherver they appear.

So, is it just me, or do the above 2 paragraphs contradict one another. if noon saakinah only appears at the end of a word, then what do the four above words have to do with idghaam?? According to my understanding, the noon saakinahs shouldn't be affected because they do not occur at the end of the word, they occur in the middle.

:sl:

:sl:
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Ummu Sufyaan
09-06-2007, 09:33 AM
:sl:
thanks you so much akhti.
so basically, idghaam can also occur in the midle of a word?
:sl:
Reply

...
09-06-2007, 07:39 PM
if noon saakinah only appears at the end of a word, then what do the four above words have to do with idghaam?? According to my understanding, the noon saakinahs shouldn't be affected because they do not occur at the end of the word, they occur in the middle.
No they are not affected, as far as i know those words are given because they are the only words in the Quran where the nun sakinah and letters of idgham appear within the word. :)
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Muslim_person
09-08-2007, 12:07 PM
السام عليكم
You can learn Tajweed in arabic with audio at

http://www.al-eman.com/Taguid/3amer.asp

or

http://www.abouttajweed.com/

hope u benefit from it
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Ummu Sufyaan
09-10-2007, 01:23 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Rose_Ice
No they are not affected, as far as i know those words are given because they are the only words in the Quran where the nun sakinah and letters of idgham appear within the word. :)
:sl:
jazakallah khair
so in other words, you dont pronounce it with idghaam, you pronounce it as ithaar mutlak, as sis umm maysa said.
:sl:
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learnfromquran
09-11-2007, 11:19 AM
Hello maryam,

I think the best way to learn the tajweed is the listening to the old readers when you recite the quran like:

1- abdel baset

http://english.islamway.com/bindex.p...&recitor_id=52


2- mahmoud al hosary

http://www.islamway.com/?iw_s=Quran&iw_a=view&id=144


Not only the tajweed you need, you need to understand you read, so I want to understand some sings of the quran from the following link:

http://www.learnfromquran.com, this site is helpful for non- arabic becuate he illustrate the meaning of the ayat,

you will learn there:
1- Understanding the holy quran ----> in the site forums
2- Understanding the holy quran -----> in the Learn From Quran Link on the site itself.
3- Lessons for muslims.
4- Islamic miracles.
5- How to recite the quran.

send your feedback when you want any more topics or information
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Muslim_person
09-13-2007, 08:49 AM
Asselam Alaikum


Brothers and sisters. Romadan Karim

listen and download with different reciters at

http://www.islamway.com/?iw_s=Quran
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bigboss22
09-28-2007, 10:41 PM
it does help listening to others recite however bear in mind that you should not get too carried away with trying to sound too good when learning pronounciation. the majority of us arent arent natural born singers and you should be pleased with the way you sound. as long as all tajweed rules are followed then inshallah there will be no flaw in your recitation.
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Ummu Sufyaan
10-21-2007, 06:45 AM
:sl:
got another question.
lets all turn to surat al-Israa, verse 20 and 21(17: 20& 21).
if one was to continue reading (i.e not stopping at at the end of versie 20), what rule of tajweed would apply. So, normally, if one was to stop at the end of verse 20, Madd al-Iwadh would be applied, and one would pronouce the word as "mathooraa" (as opposed to "mahthooran". Likewise if one was to start at the beginning of verse 21, the rule of hamzatul-wasl would be applied. i.e you would pronouce the first word of the verse as ""unthor (excuse the bad transliteration.
so, i say it would be ikfaa. however, my mum says no, because there are two saakinahs following one another, and appernalty that dosn't work (apparently there is a rule pertaining to two saakinahs following one another:?)

so, what is the rule?
:sl:
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Umm_Maysa
10-21-2007, 11:13 AM
:sl: sister,
there is rule whenever two sakin meets called iltiqaa' sakinain. In these verses, first saakin is the noon of mahthooran and second saakin is noon from word Unthur. So we have to put kasrah on the first saakin noon only when join. So it become mahthooraninthur. Hamzah wasal not pronounced when join the verses.

format_quote Originally Posted by maryam11
:sl:
got another question.
lets all turn to surat al-Israa, verse 20 and 21(17: 20& 21).
if one was to continue reading (i.e not stopping at at the end of versie 20), what rule of tajweed would apply. So, normally, if one was to stop at the end of verse 20, Madd al-Iwadh would be applied, and one would pronouce the word as "mathooraa" (as opposed to "mahthooran". Likewise if one was to start at the beginning of verse 21, the rule of hamzatul-wasl would be applied. i.e you would pronouce the first word of the verse as ""unthor (excuse the bad transliteration.
so, i say it would be ikfaa. however, my mum says no, because there are two saakinahs following one another, and appernalty that dosn't work (apparently there is a rule pertaining to two saakinahs following one another:?)

so, what is the rule?
:sl:
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Ummu Sufyaan
10-21-2007, 11:14 AM
:sl:
jazakallahu khair, brothers and sisters.
:sl:
Reply

...
10-21-2007, 11:15 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Umm_Maysa
:sl: sister,
there is rule whenever two sakin meets called iltiqaa' sakinain. In these verses, first saakin is the noon of mahthooran and second saakin is noon from word Unthur. So we have to put kasrah on the first saakin noon only when join. So it become mahthooraninthur. Hamzah wasal not pronounced when join the verses.
lol thats exactly what the poster above u said
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Ummu Sufyaan
10-21-2007, 11:45 AM
:sl:
Is there another part of the quran where this rule is applied during the ayah? not at a stop?
:sl:
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Umm_Maysa
10-22-2007, 05:30 AM
:sl:
Yes...many in Quran apply to this rule..in surah albaqarah ayat 180 khairan- alwasiyyatu read as khairanilwasiyyatu....and surah kahfi ayat 77 qaryatin-staT'amaa(excuse my transliteration) read as qaryatinistaT 'amaa...I have some more but cannot remember which surah and ayat number...like uzayrunibnu and lahwaninfadhdhu(I think in surah jumua...I can give u some other example too insha Allah...but it many in Quran...basically everytime u see tanween followed by another sukun just put kasrah on the noon of tanween no matter what harakat of tanween. if it fathah become anin or unin or inin( depends what the last letter of tanween).
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Ummu Sufyaan
10-25-2007, 01:31 AM
:sl:
jazakallahu khair sis.
another qn in relation to this: why is it that you omit the hamzatul-wasl and not the alif follwing the tanween of fathah. is there like a 'ranking' where one is 'weaker' than the other. or not you not omit the alif following the tanween of fathah, because it is mandotory to have it (i.e it is the rule that when alif must follow the tanween of fathah-does that make sense).
:sl:
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Ummu Sufyaan
10-30-2007, 03:42 AM
:sl:
i have another question.:hiding:
well, its actually not for me, for my mum.
she wants to know about the idghaam. we know that the letters of idghaam are يرملون and that the letters 'meem' and 'noon' are called idghaam bi ghunnah, and the letters 'laam' and 'raa' are idghaam naaqis/ bi ghayr ghunnah.

She wants to know what the remaining letters (yaa and waaw) are classed as, because in diffeent books she has read different things. in one book she read that they are idghaam naaqis/bi ghunnah, but in another she read that they are not because they do not have the qualities of the meem and noon, which are 'original ghunnahs,' so therefore they cannot be classed as idghaam naaqis/bi ghunnah. if that qn makes no sense, let me know.
:sl:
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Umm_Maysa
10-30-2007, 12:42 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by maryam11
:sl:
jazakallahu khair sis.
another qn in relation to this: why is it that you omit the hamzatul-wasl and not the alif follwing the tanween of fathah. is there like a 'ranking' where one is 'weaker' than the other. or not you not omit the alif following the tanween of fathah, because it is mandotory to have it (i.e it is the rule that when alif must follow the tanween of fathah-does that make sense).
:sl:
:sl:
good question Sis...we omit hamzatul-wasal when join, hamzatul wasal only pronoun when we start the verse with it.the fathatin(tanween fathah) always followed by alif except for hamzah fathatin and ta marbutah fathatin.So the alif here is mad letter..There is rule if the maad letter(not maad leen) followed by another sukun the maad letter is drop(omit).
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Umm_Maysa
10-30-2007, 12:49 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by maryam11
:sl:
i have another question.:hiding:
well, its actually not for me, for my mum.
she wants to know about the idghaam. we know that the letters of idghaam are يرملون and that the letters 'meem' and 'noon' are called idghaam bi ghunnah, and the letters 'laam' and 'raa' are idghaam naaqis/ bi ghayr ghunnah.

She wants to know what the remaining letters (yaa and waaw) are classed as, because in diffeent books she has read different things. in one book she read that they are idghaam naaqis/bi ghunnah, but in another she read that they are not because they do not have the qualities of the meem and noon, which are 'original ghunnahs,' so therefore they cannot be classed as idghaam naaqis/bi ghunnah. if that qn makes no sense, let me know.
:sl:
:sl:
For the letters waaw and yaa,it called idgham bighunnah naaqis(incomplete),as u said they do not have qualities of meem and noon.which is original ghunnah...then the idgham is incomplete.For meem and noon it called idgham bighunnah kamil.
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Ummu Sufyaan
11-22-2007, 02:27 AM
:sl:
can someone please explain to me what madd ul-tamkeen is?
:sl:
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Umm_Maysa
11-22-2007, 12:25 PM
format_quote Originally Posted by maryam11
:sl:
can someone please explain to me what madd ul-tamkeen is?
:sl:
:sl:
madd tamkeen is when the two yaa (the last letter in hijaiyyah) and two waaw are next to each other. One is maddiyyah(madd letter) the other one is mutaharrikah.It is does not matter which one comes first. Example...nabiyyeen, huyyeetum..first yaa with kasrah second ya maddiyyah and for the waaw- yal woon(yaa lam waw waw noon), daa wood(prophet dawood), other example...aa manoo wa 'amiloos saalihaat- waaw on amanoo is madd tamkeen also...this name been given to make sure the madd two harakat is pronounced and to be careful for the reader for not making idgham or cancel the madd letter.Hope you understand inshaAllah.
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Ummu Sufyaan
11-23-2007, 11:27 AM
:sl:
but whats madd tabee3i than? isnt that the same thing?
:sl:
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Umm_Maysa
11-24-2007, 10:51 AM
:sl:
madd tabie is natural madd with two counts, no more and no less depends on your speed of reading.So madd tamkeen in the group of madd tabie but it got it's own name- like mad silah sughra, mad iwadh, mad alifat as-sab'a,mad hayy Tahoor(all these madd in madd tabie).....same like in our family(everyone have same surname...but different first name).
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Ummu Sufyaan
12-02-2007, 03:46 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by Umm_Maysa
:sl:
madd tamkeen is when the two yaa (the last letter in hijaiyyah) and two waaw are next to each other.
so this only applpies to yaa and waaw, and no alif. :?
:sl:
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Umm_Maysa
12-02-2007, 11:10 AM
:sl:
first of all...we must understand the madd tabie because it is the root, from madd tabie came the mad farie(branch).As we know the alif always sukun..never mutaharrik..it is the hamzah sit over the alif if fathah or dhammah and hamzah under alif if kasrah. So there is no two alif meeting...but there is two hamzahs meeting...called mad badal.
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Ummu Sufyaan
12-02-2007, 12:14 PM
:sl:
is it true that the vowel (i.e yaa, or waaw), has to be preceeded by a yaa with shaddah. eg: النبيين
:sl:
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BlackMamba
12-03-2007, 02:55 AM
From what i understand from ur question,No.
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Umm_Maysa
12-03-2007, 03:57 AM
format_quote Originally Posted by maryam11
:sl:
is it true that the vowel (i.e yaa, or waaw), has to be preceeded by a yaa with shaddah. eg: النبيين
:sl:
:sl:
from what I understand from your question, No..we just need to understand what is madd tamkeen is..the ya(letter mad) in nabiyyin called mad tamkeen..because before the ya maddiyyah is ya with kasrah.If there is shaddah after waw or ya maddiyyah then the mad letter is cancel because idgham rule is applied here...
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Ummu Sufyaan
12-13-2007, 05:47 AM
:sl:
If there is shaddah after waw or ya maddiyyah then the mad letter is cancel because idgham rule is applied here...
ukhtee umm maysa, can u please post an example :sunny:
:sl:
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H@fiz Aziz
12-22-2007, 05:12 PM
sister a internet site will not help that much if you go to a qari or a hafiz of some type they can read and teach you all the tajweed marks to read the quran the right way. Remember if you read quran fast it's probally not right you have to read slow and with tajweed so i think you should go to classes around your area.
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