The Qur'an contains three different accounts of the familiar story of Moses and the Burning Bush, namely S. 20:9-24, S. 27:7-14 and S. 28:29-33. I have a few questions I'd be interested to hear answers to:
1) What was Allah's purpose in giving three different accounts of the same event?
2) Related to the first question, what can we learn from the differences between the three accounts?
3) Is there an authoritative 'harmonization' of these accounts which could tell us what was actually said?
4) As a separate issue entirely, are there any other stories in the Qur'an where a prophet speaks to Allah directly (if, indeed, Moses does in this case)?
Thanks Ramisa, but I'm not sure I quite follow what you're saying - in particular I don't see why three accounts are necessary to tell the story from two viewpoints. More generally, what is Allah's purpose in giving these two viewpoints?
Peace,
I doubt if I can find an explanation in either the Qur'an or the Ahadith.
But that does not mean there is no explanation. Notice the Event of the burning bush is told in separate revelations. To understand you need to take in context of the whole Surrah and see why it applies to that specific Surah 20 is a message of hope. The portion of Moses and the burning bush is written in a maaner and from the view that their is hope for Muslims. Surah 27 is basically a telling of the prophetic nature of scripture. and told fom that view.
Surah 28 seems to be told from the view of the power of Allaah(swt) and how the Jews
were lifted above their Egyptian oppressors.
"4) As a separate issue entirely, are there any other stories in the Qur'an where a prophet speaks to Allah directly (if, indeed, Moses does in this case)?"
I believe most if not all scholars have come to the conclusion it was an Angel that spoke to Musa(as). However since the Angels have no free will and can only speak what Allaah(swt) has spoken. The correspond very much to being living tape recorders.
i do not think any scholars believe Allaah(swt) has ever spoken directly to a Prophet but always through an Angel who most scholars believe to have been Jibril (Gabrial in English)
Are you sure about that Woodrow? I've never heard it explained that way before. My understanding was always that Allah spoke directly to Musa ('alayhi-salaam) on Mount Toor and directly to Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) when he went on the night journey and received the commandment for the five daily prayers (initially fifty), albeit from behind a veil.
Consider 42:51:
It is not given to any human being that Allâh should speak to him unless (it be) by Inspiration, or from behind a veil, or (that) He sends a Messenger to reveal what He wills by His Leave. Verily, He is Most High, Most Wise.
"I spent thirty years learning manners, and I spent twenty years learning knowledge."
Allaah says, in the story of Moosa (peace be upon him) (interpretation of the meaning): “And when Moosa came at the time and place appointed by Us, and his Lord spoke to him, he said, ‘O my Lord! Show me (Yourself), that I may look upon You.’ Allaah said, ‘You cannot see Me, but look upon the mountain, if its stands still in its place, then you shall see Me.’ So when his Lord appeared to the mountain, He made it collapse to dust, and Moosa fell down unconscious. Then when he recovered his senses he said, ‘Glory be to You, I turn to You in repentance and I am the first of the believers.’” [al-A’raaf 7:143].
There is a consensus (did I use the word correctly?) that it was an angel, but I believe the greater opinion is that Allah Ta'ala himself had spoken to Musa Alayhe Salaam.
There is a consensus (did I use the word correctly?) that it was an angel, but I believe the greater opinion is that Allah Ta'ala himself had spoken to Musa Alayhe Salaam.
You didn't use the word correctly. Consensus means that everybody agrees to it, which clearly isn't the case.
For example: There is consensus that Rashad is a fool. This would mean that everybody is in agreement that Rashad is a fool. Understand?
"I spent thirty years learning manners, and I spent twenty years learning knowledge."
Are you sure about that Woodrow? I've never heard it explained that way before. My understanding was always that Allah spoke directly to Musa ('alayhi-salaam) on Mount Toor and directly to Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) when he went on the night journey and received the commandment for the five daily prayers (initially fifty), albeit from behind a veil.
Consider 42:51:
It is not given to any human being that Allâh should speak to him unless (it be) by Inspiration, or from behind a veil, or (that) He sends a Messenger to reveal what He wills by His Leave. Verily, He is Most High, Most Wise.
I guess I will never be too old to learn something new. You made a good point and it should have been obvious to me. There is indication Allaah(swt) did speak directly to them (PBUT)
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Consensus means that everybody agrees to it, which clearly isn't the case.
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