My confusion in slavery in islam

format_quote Originally Posted by Regrets1

So is it permissible for a man to have intercourse with a slave without marrying her?

Yes, it is permissible. Provided she is okay with it. He cannot force his concubine to have intercourse with him.

format_quote Originally Posted by Kiro

Since no one has answered this, I will give it a try.

wswrb

I don't know where you get that you don't call them slaves (I guess you could if you wished so) but yes you must respect your slaves and not overburden them with work.

Is far as I know, I don't think you can have a married slave, your own slave is permissible for you to marry though. If a person has intercourse with someones slave than this is zina.

Also the 'image' of slavery primarily belongs to how Americans used slave quite some time ago.

I think if a slave has bore you a child than the slave has freed themselves. Like she has a higher status (?)

As far as I know, Prophet only had one concubine who was the mother of his child, Ibraheem: Maria.

There is a verse in the Qu'ran that says that protect your private parts and go to your wives and what your right hand possess (slaves/concubine) so they are permissible for you. I will try to get the verse.

So in short, it is not cheating because your slave is halal for you but cannot force them upon you.

I think you can only have a Muslim slave or people of the Book slave unless it is a time of war because there is a hadith that says, some companions courted captives in war or something like that.

I am not sure whether you can have a Muslim as a slave. I read somewhere, that if a slave submits to Islam, you are obligated to release him/her.

Can any scholar confirm this?

And Allah knows best.

format_quote Originally Posted by Born_Believer

This is just not true. Where are you getting this information from?

I hope no one reads this and takes it as correct.

Islamically, one is allowed to marry someone who is in their employ, back then a slave/servant who would work in the household (also live in the household, eat the same food etc, they were not abused in any way). However, sexual intercourse outside of marriage is haram in any circumstance, with any individual.

Also, the beloved Rasool of Allah, Muhammad PBUH never had any "concubines", what kind of madness is that? A prophet of Allah would have a concubine? Astaghfurullah for such blasphemous remarks.

The Prophet PBUH married a girl who was formerly a coptic Christian slave, or so the story goes. There is some discussion on how the marriage occurs but every legitimate source has her as a wife and she would bear Prophet Muhammad PBUH his last child. A son who sadly died in infancy.

The son dying could be seen as a blessing. Imo.

format_quote Originally Posted by Born_Believer

This is just not true. Where are you getting this information from?

I hope no one reads this and takes it as correct.

Islamically, one is allowed to marry someone who is in their employ, back then a slave/servant who would work in the household (also live in the household, eat the same food etc, they were not abused in any way). However, sexual intercourse outside of marriage is haram in any circumstance, with any individual.

Also, the beloved Rasool of Allah, Muhammad PBUH never had any "concubines", what kind of madness is that? A prophet of Allah would have a concubine? Astaghfurullah for such blasphemous remarks.

The Prophet PBUH married a girl who was formerly a coptic Christian slave, or so the story goes. There is some discussion on how the marriage occurs but every legitimate source has her as a wife and she would bear Prophet Muhammad PBUH his last child. A son who sadly died in infancy.

1) The Qur'aan itself mentions the permissibility of having intercourse with slaves. Read the very first page of the 18th Juz'/Paara of the Qur'aan. Denying it is Kufr.

2) Rasoolullaah صلى الله عليه وسلم had concubines. That Hadhrat Maariyah al-Qibtiyyah was a concubine of Rasoolullaah صلى الله عليه وسلم has been mentioned by the following `Ulamaa:

According to `Allaamah al-Aloosi in Rooh-ul-Ma`aani - and he quotes from Hadhrat `Abdullaah ibn `Abbaas that the opening Aayah of Soorah at-Tahreem was revealed concerning Hadhrat Maariyah, and that she was a slave-girl belonging to Rasoolullaah صلى الله عليه وسلم – and this is also according to Imaam ibn Katheer in his Tafseer (see Soorah at-Tahreem, 66:1-5), Imaam as-Suyooti in Jalaalayn (Ibid), Imaam ibn Hazm in Jawaami`-us-Seerah, Shaykh Ismaa`eel Haqqi in Rooh-ul-Bayaan, Imaam Nizhaam-ud-Deen an-Naysaaboori in his Tafseer (Ibid), Imaam Abu Hayyaan al-Andalusi in Al-Bahr Al-Muheet (Ibid), Imaam al-Qurtubi in his Tafseer (Ibid), Imaam ibn al-Jawzi in Zaad-ul-Maseer fee `Ilm-it-Tafseer (Ibid), Imaam ath-Tha`labi in his Tafseer (Ibid), Imaam Abul Layth as-Samarqandi in Bahr-ul-`Uloom (Ibid), Imaam at-Tabari in his Tafseer (Ibid), and Imaam Muhammad al-Ameen ibn Mukhtaar ash-Shinqeeti in Adhwaa-ul-Bayaan (Ibid). [Soorah al-Mu’minoon, 23:5, 6.]

The `Ulamaa of Islaam for the past 1,437 years have Ijmaa` (consensus) on it. That you have not heard about something does not negate it.

Yes, it is permissible, according to the Qur'aan itself, for a man to have intercourse with slave-girls belonging to him. No Mufassir (commentator of the Qur'aan) who has ever lived disagreed with this view, because the Qur'aan itself - in clear terms - permits it.

واَلَّذين هُم لِفروجهم حَافظون، إلا عَلى أزواجهم أو مَا مَلکت أيمانهم فَانَّهم غَير مَلومين


“And those who guard their private parts, except from their wives or (the slaves and captives) that their right hands possess; for then, they are free from blame.” [Soorah al-Mu'minoon, 23:5, 6]

Explaining Aayats five and six of Soorah al-Mu'minoon, Imaam ibn Katheer says:

وَالَّذِينَ قَدْ حَفِظُوا فُرُوجَهُمْ مِنَ الْحَرَامِ، فَلَا يَقَعُونَ فِيمَا نَهَاهُمُ اللَّهُ عَنْهُ مِنْ زِنًا أَوْ لِوَاطٍ، وَلَا يَقْرَبُونَ سِوَى أَزْوَاجَهُمُ الَّتِي أَحَلَّهَا اللَّهُ لَهُمْ، وَمَا مَلَكَتْ أَيْمَانُهُمْ مِنَ السَّرَارِيِّ، وَمَنْ تَعَاطَى مَا أَحَلَّهُ اللَّهُ لَهُ فَلَا لَوْمَ عَلَيْهِ وَلَا حَرَجَ

"And they are those who protect their private parts from Haraam, so they do not fall into Zinaa (fornication or adultery) or Liwaat (sodomy). They do not approach (for sexual intercourse) except their wives that Allaah has made Halaal (permissible) for them, and those that their right-hands possess from slave-girls. Whosoever goes to that which Allaah has made permissible for him, then there is no blame upon him." [Tafseer ibn Katheer.]

I might add something as a layman. Correct me if I am wrong. (Layman as in terms of informed study)

The Quran came down at a zalim period. So many things were eliminated and practices gradually phased out. Slavery perhaps took a generation or two to cease, hence the 'law' for those still with slaves at that time. So, in this day and age, we do not have and would not have thus, a not really relevant for us. No?

Nothing of Islaam can ever become "irrelevant". The Qur'aan was revealed for all time. Tell me: What is the use behind having an Aayah in the Qur'aan that is "irrelevant" or "no longer applies to our time"?

Allaah Ta`aalaa Himself is the Lawgiver. When Allaah Ta`aalaa has made something permissible, no person can make it Haraam, and when He made made something Haraam, no person can make it permissible. No one can repeal a law of the Qur'aan. No person can abrogate an Aayah of the Qur'aan.

Our duty is to submit wholeheartedly to Islaam. Submit to what Allaah Ta`aalaa and Rasoolullaah صلى الله عليه وسلم have told us, whether we understand it or not. Our intellects are deficient. In everything which Allaah Ta`aalaa and His Rasool صلى الله عليه وسلم have legislated, there is absolute wisdom. We may not understand the wisdom behind it yet. But we will, In Shaa Allaah. It is our duty to accept whether we understand it or not.

إِنَّمَا كَانَ قَوْلَ الْمُؤْمِنِينَ إِذَا دُعُوا إِلَى اللَّهِ وَرَسُولِهِ لِيَحْكُمَ بَيْنَهُمْ أَنْ يَقُولُوا سَمِعْنَا وَأَطَعْنَا وَأُولَئِكَ هُمُ الْمُفْلِحُونَ

"The saying of the Mu'mineen when they are called to Allaah and His Rasool (صلى الله عليه وسلم) to judge between them is only that they say, "We hear and we obey." And such are the successful." [Soorah an-Noor, 24:51]