format_quote Originally Posted by
Desire of Ages
Thank you for the courteous reply likewise. It is refreshing to converse with kind persons such as yourself.
Well, I would not claim that a Qur'an teaches in that ayah that "all" 'Jews' 'said' it, but I would ask which specific 'sect' did, and if there was any documentary evidence of it.
I have heard of a another way to 'interpret'/'translate' the passages is in an 'indefinite' way ['a son'], and have seen several Qur'anic translations which go this direction [though they are in minority relation to others], but wouldn't that make the Qur'anic text less clear, since such an 'interpretation/translation' of the Arabic, then include all "Jews", since they would all then be classed as Bene Elohiym? What would then be the point of a Qur'an then singling out 'Uzair' among them all since the days of the tribe of Judah [Jews]? And how could a Qur'an classify Ezra as a "Jew", when a "Jew" is of the tribe of Judah, and Ezra was a "Priest" and could only be of the line of Levi - Ezra KJB 7:1 Now after these things, in the reign of Artaxerxes king of Persia, Ezra the son of Seraiah, the son of Azariah, the son of Hilkiah, Ezr 7:2 The son of Shallum, the son of Zadok, the son of Ahitub, Ezr 7:3 The son of Amariah, the son of Azariah, the son of Meraioth, Ezr 7:4 The son of Zerahiah, the son of Uzzi, the son of Bukki, Ezr 7:5 The son of Abishua, the son of Phinehas, the son of Eleazar, the son of Aaron the chief priest:, which is not "Jew", but "Hebrew - Levite" [of Eber, through Abraham, Isaac, Jacob/Israel', would then such an 'interpretation/translation' make less sense than that of a 'definite' article ["the", rather than "a"]?
As a for instance, would Moses be classed an "Jew" in the same sense then, or not, according to Islamic standards [I would think not, but am curious]?
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