Just a quick question, I'm hoping you guys and/or scholars can help
A person has given some money to a poor family in an asian country (back home). They have the means to provide for themselves (husband and wife both are working) but they recently married their daughter off, which made them low on their savings, and it was difficult to afford rent, daily expenditure, etc.
My question is, could the person count this as part of their Zakaat or not, considering the family is poor?
What defines how poor a person has to be or who Zakaat can go to?
In principle, a person qualifies as a recipient of Zakat if he does not have cash/items (excluding items of personal use) equal to or more than the Nisab amount. Items of personal use are: house, car, clothing, cell phones, laptops, books for students, appliances, furniture, etc
One must bear in mind that this Intention should be made at the time of discharging the zakaat. After having gave the money, now the intention of zakaat can not be made.
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