Questions about Judaism answered by a Jew!

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Let say, if a Jew need some animal parts (like pig) to be implanted inside his body, in order to make him healthier or staying alive... is it allowed?

:sl:

LOL! You're killing me with these questions!! Honestly man what a question... do you even know the answer, Islamically? :D

since the Quran says people who transgress the Sabbath are apes, are Muslims not apes or do Muslims follow the Sabbath? certainly do.

The Sabbath was compulsory for the Children of Israel, it is no longer a part of God's law.

Also, I have one question, do Jew's believe that there were prophets sent to mankind after Moses? If so, how many, and does your Holy Book indicate anything about them, there number etc?

(Also, Grace Seeker thank you for the response.)
 
Rav, is there any place in Jewish literature, whether sacred text, rabbinic writings, or even legend where Jews have said that Ezra was the Son of God?

No, Judaism basically views Christianity as not monotheistic, or mot completly, because they view a man as "son of god" which is completly foreign to Judaism. The Jews never heard of such a "son" so they therefore, were very unopen, and hostile to whoever suggested such a thing.

To put it plainly, no, Ezra was never viewed as a "son of god" and if a few Jews did view him as that, it is not shown in any of the scriptures, and they were considered heretics if they really did believe that. I seriously doubt anyone followed that ideology however.

The Sabbath was compulsory for the Children of Israel, it is no longer a part of God's law.

Also, I have one question, do Jew's believe that there were prophets sent to mankind after Moses? If so, how many, and does your Holy Book indicate anything about them, there number etc?

Well we believe that the Sabbath laws are for eternity for the Jews to follow.

There were 48 prophets and 7 prophetesses whose prophecies were recorded for posterity in the Bible. Other prophets, who may or may not have been in prophecy full-time, are mentioned in various places throughout Tanach, but their prophecies were not recorded, because their prophecies were only intended for themselves or for the generation who lived at that time. For example: King Saul dabbled in prophecy for a time, but what he was told, like the thousands of other unrecorded prophecies, is unknown.

Outside of these, there were many, many thousands of prophets who aren't even mentioned in the Bible.

To view a list of these prophets click HERE
 
Thanks. This might be a dumb question but why do Jews reject Jesus?
 
Salaam/peace;

Ezra was never viewed as a "son of god"

---- just curious.....is that ur personal opinion or u asked any Rabbi ?


and if a few Jews did view him as that........

---- i read that when Jews lost Torah in exile , many years later it was only Prophet Ezra/Uzair (p) who recited the Torah from memory. So, jews at that time considered him as ' son of God '.

Later , Prophet Muhammed (p) asked a group of Jews that if for remembering Torah they considered him as son of God , why not then they think same or more of Moses / Musa (p) because he got the whole revealtion from God. Can u pl. ask any Rabbi if he heard of any such story ?
 
I think it has to be understood that the Ayah which mentions Ezra and the belief that he is the son of Allah, refers specifically to the Jews in Medina (and possibly other places in Arabia) who held that belief. Muhammad Asad (a Jew who converted to Islam) explains it in his commentary on the Qur'an:

As regards the belief attributed to the Jews that Ezra (or, in the Arabicized form of this name, `Uzayr) was "God's son", it is to be noted that almost all classical commentators of the Qur'an agree in that only the Jews of Arabia, and not all Jews, have been thus accused. (According to a Tradition on the authority of Ibn `Abbas - quoted by Tabari in his commentary on this verse - some of the Jews of Medina once said to Muhammad, "How could we follow thee when thou hast forsaken our qiblah and dost not consider Ezra a son of God?")

So one shouldn't think this means that the Qur'an claims that todays Jews believe in Ezra as Allah's son. As rav explained, they don't.
 
Alright, this is going to have to be geared towards questions and answers only, the thread was only meant for that, not for conversations on various topics, and opinions or counter points by non-Jews.

I ask you to please make a seperate thread if you wish to discuss anything else said here in more detail, and continue to let this be a simple question and answer setting.
 
Salaam/peace;

Alright, this is going to have to be geared towards questions and answers only, the thread was only meant for that, not for conversations on various topics, and opinions or counter points by non-Jews.

I ask you to please make a seperate thread if you wish to discuss anything else said here in more detail, and continue to let this be a simple question and answer setting.

Hi rav , i think ur restriction will create a lot of threads . Can't we discuss /converse about related question & answers ???
 
Salaam/peace;



Hi rav , i think ur restriction will create a lot of threads . Can't we discuss /converse about related question & answers ???

My opinion is that it really is not the place for such a thing. This should remain strictly question and answer and not be filled up with debates or conversations.
 
Since lavikor is the thread master, I think it should be his decision.

I don't know if he posts here anymore though...
 
Well, it seems we are having debate and conversation about whether to have debate and conversation. So, how about a new question, instead?


It is my understanding that the Christian Old Testament and the Tanakh contain the same books, but in a different order. To my perspective that is not a significant difference. From a Jewish perspective are there other issues or difference that are significant that I might not be aware of?
 
It is my understanding that the Christian Old Testament and the Tanakh contain the same books, but in a different order. To my perspective that is not a significant difference. From a Jewish perspective are there other issues or difference that are significant that I might not be aware of?

Translations. A lot of times there were errors in the translations, on purpose or not I do not know, but many of these errors proven to be inaccurate benefited missionaries out to convert Jews like the famous "almah" case. The Christians may have translated everything from the Greek or something I don't Know, but the Christian bibe is not a very accurate translation of the Hebrew.

Thanks. This might be a dumb question but why do Jews reject Jesus?

These sites should explain why:

http://jewsforjudaism.com/web/handbook/s_messiah.html
http://jewsforjudaism.com/jews-jesus/jews-jesus-index.html
http://www.islamicboard.com/436853-post281.html
http://jewsforjudaism.com/web/handbook/s_refuting.html

(The following links are explanations and are not meant to be offensive to any Christian.)
 
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Translations. A lot of times there were errors in the translations, on purpose or not I do not know, but many of these errors proven to be inaccurate benefited missionaries out to convert Jews like the famous "almah" case. The Christians may have translated everything from the Greek or something I don't Know, but the Christian bibe is not a very accurate translation of the Hebrew.

Merhaba, Izak. Nasilsin? You are my favorite person to speak with in this thread because you are from Turkey, as is my daughter.

Anyway, I'm drawing a blank with regards the "almah" case right now. Can you elucidate more, or provide me with a link if it is long?

As to translating from the Greek, I just read the preface to my Bible and this is what it says, "For the Old Testament the standard Hebrew text, the Masoretic Text as published in the latest editions of Biblica Hebraica, was used throughout." The LXX was consulted, but not the standard used for translating unless the rendering of a particular phrase was in doubt because of the subtleties of the Hebrew language. And how would this be detrimental? After all the LXX was a Jewish translation of the Tanakh into Greek 200 years before the time of Christ. And at the time of its translation proudly proclaimed to have been a miraculously inspired translation, perfect in every way. It too is a Jewish document, not a Christian one?
 
Salaam,

Do Judaic faith allow gays/lesbian?

If you do,pls explain?
 
Salaam,

Do Judaic faith allow gays/lesbian?

If you do,pls explain?

The Torah says:

You shall not lie down with a male, as with a woman: this is an abomination.
(Leviticus 18:22)

There is nothung more to explain.

Merhaba, Izak. Nasilsin? You are my favorite person to speak with in this thread because you are from Turkey, as is my daughter.

Anyway, I'm drawing a blank with regards the "almah" case right now. Can you elucidate more, or provide me with a link if it is long?

As to translating from the Greek, I just read the preface to my Bible and this is what it says, "For the Old Testament the standard Hebrew text, the Masoretic Text as published in the latest editions of Biblica Hebraica, was used throughout." The LXX was consulted, but not the standard used for translating unless the rendering of a particular phrase was in doubt because of the subtleties of the Hebrew language. And how would this be detrimental? After all the LXX was a Jewish translation of the Tanakh into Greek 200 years before the time of Christ. And at the time of its translation proudly proclaimed to have been a miraculously inspired translation, perfect in every way. It too is a Jewish document, not a Christian one?

We recently were asked the following by one of our visitors:

A Christian co-worker recently told me that the Bible contains a prophecy, in the book of Isaiah, forecasting that the Messiah would be born to a virgin mother. She then showed me the verse in her Bible: "Therefore the L-rd Himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." I suspect that something must be wrong here. Could you please shed some light on this matter as this sounds like it was fulfilled by Jesus.


Although this passage has historically been a favorite Christian "prooftext", serious weaknesses have caused a recent decline in its popularity. A comprehensive examination of this verse (Isaiah 7:14) is beyond the scope of this column; we will limit ourselves to a consideration of just two of its many problems.Someone once quipped that "a text without a context is pretext". The first question that needs to be raised is whether the verse cited here is indeed a reference to the Messiah. We might ask the missionary to provide some compelling reason for us to accept that the verse warrants such an interpretation. We suspect that the missionary will be hard-pressed to provide a logical basis for this assumption.

Then, of course, there is the crucial issue of the general context. The seventh chapter of Isaiah takes place about 700 BCE, and describes an alliance between Syria and the northern kingdom of Israel, whose combined forces threaten to destroy the kingdom of Judah. The prophet Isaiah assures Achaz, King of Judah, that G-d will protect his kingdom. He prophesies that a child will be born to a certain woman, and that, before the child learns to distinguish good from evil, the two kingdoms threatening Judah will be destroyed (verses 15 - 16). The prophecy contained in Isaiah 7 clearly addresses this particular political crisis; it in no way refers to the concept of a Messiah. Furthermore, Jesus was not born until 700 years later; his birth could hardly offer any reassurance to King Achaz!

The second flaw in this prooftext, and the one which ultimately condemns it to oblivion, is that it's founded upon blatant mistranslation. Isaiah, in fact, merely speaks of "the young woman "almah" who will give birth. Christian translators took great license, as did the New Testament when it "quoted" this verse in Matthew, when they rendered this word "virgin". There is a specific Hebrew word for "virgin" (betulah), which Isaiah would have used if that were what he meant.

Modern Christian scholarship has recognized that the "virgin birth" prophecy is based upon a distortion of the Hebrew scriptures. Beginning with the Revised Standard Version of the Bible in 1952, virtually all Christian translations have adopted "young woman" rather than "virgin" as the correct rendering of "almah".
 
Tesekkur ederim, Izak.

Now that you have shared it, I am aware of the "almah" case of which you speak. I just don't use Hebrew often, so I simply drew a blank on the word itself. Yeah, if I was translating Isaiah 7, I too would translate it "young woman". It is historical bias to a particular theological thought that makes people want to abandon their priniciples on proper translation techniques when it comes to that particular verse. Christian translators are people like the rest of us and guilty of letting their personal biases to that with which they were raised get in the way of truth every now and then.

Any other glaring inaccuracies beyond this high profile case that you are aware of?
 
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Tesekkur ederim, Izak.

Now that you have shared it, I am aware of the "almah" case of which you speak. I just don't use Hebrew often, so I simply drew a blank on the word itself. Yeah, if I was translating Isaiah 7, I too would translate it "young woman". It is historical bias to a particular theological thought that makes people want to abandon their priniciples on proper translation techniques when it comes to that particular verse. Christian translators are people like the rest of us and guilty of letting their personal biases to that with which they were raised get in the way of truth every now and then.

Any other glaring inaccuracies beyond this high profile case that you are aware of?

There are a few more that are translation errors that were done on purpose, but a lot of the Christian Bible was translated into a more "poetic" form of English that makes it easier to read, but removes some key words and destroys some of the meaning of the verses. To translate a Hebrew word for example "Brick" to "Blocks" might not seem such a big deal, but we still believe it is the word of G-d, which is why the Jewish direct translations from the Hebrew that we have are probably the most accurate you can get from not actually reading the Hebrew. Reading it directly from the Hebrew is obviously the best choice.
 
There are a few more that are translation errors that were done on purpose, but a lot of the Christian Bible was translated into a more "poetic" form of English that makes it easier to read, but removes some key words and destroys some of the meaning of the verses. To translate a Hebrew word for example "Brick" to "Blocks" might not seem such a big deal, but we still believe it is the word of G-d, which is why the Jewish direct translations from the Hebrew that we have are probably the most accurate you can get from not actually reading the Hebrew. Reading it directly from the Hebrew is obviously the best choice.




I concur with you 100% that it is the word of G-D. And also that reading it in the Hebrew is the best choice. Obviously not everyone has that ability. In the work of translation the connotations of not only words, but phrases too, are important. And not just the conotations of the original language, but with regard to the language into which it is being translated also.

The two languages I speak best are English and Spanish. A typical English phrase might be "I'm at home." In Spanish that would be rendered "Estoy en casa." Now the Spanish word "casa" can mean either "home" or "house" when translated into English, and the Spanish word "en" can (among other things) mean "in", "on", or "at" depending on the context. But whether one is saying "I am at 'home'," or "I am in 'house';" the concepts are equivalent. That is they are equivalent, until one changes the context and you are talking to a college student that lives in a dorm. In that instance when you have two students studying in the library late at night and one turns to the other to say, "Voy a casa." it is important to translate it as "I'm going home" referring to one's dorm room, they certainly don't mean "I am going to a house". But if it is two students standing in the parking lot next to a fully packed car at the time of a break from school and the student says, "Voy a casa." He/she most likely means "I'm going home, to my house."

Some years ago, when I my Turkish daughter was living with us -- a brief explanation, she was an exchange student who lived with us for a year, she did and still continues to call us "Mom and Dad" and we call her our "daughter" because that is the nature of our relationship, even if it is not biologically true -- we had gone to visit some other family for a weekend. We had a good time, but when we got back to where we lived, Aslı threw herself into a chair and said, "It's good to be home." Now by that she wasn't saying that she was glad to be in a house, nor that she was home with her family in Turkey, she was saying that she felt "at home" where she was with us. "Home" in that context was both a place and an emotional base.

I understand that in Turkish, "ev" has more than one connotation. It can mean "house", the dwelling one lives in. It is can mean "home" the place you make for yourself (as in the saying, “love makes a house a home”). It can even mean "household", all who live in one house together; or, figuratively, it can mean "family". But in some cases you could use "yuva", not just for the home of a bird, but for where people make a nest for themselves. Or would "ocak" be a better choice if I was talking about sitting at home around the fireplace in my livingroom. When Asli said she was glad to be "home" what do you think was the Turkish concept she had in her mind?

So it is with bayith or nâvâh. These terms would have different connotations depending on the context. To say that one must equal "a house" and the other equal "a home" in every circumstance is not something we would do when translating any other language. (And I know you are not suggesting that either.) There must be a degree of flexibility afforded to the translator to not only translate from the original tongue, but also to interpret for his audience. For instance how would you translate the following Proverb from Turkish into English:
RAB kötülerin evini lanetler, Doğruların oturduğu yeriyse kutsar.
I would render it: "The Lord's curse is on the house of the wicked, but he blesses the home of the righteous." But I have also seen it: "The curse of the Lord is in the house of the wicked, but he blesses the habitation of the just." Which one is the more correct translation? Well, I suppose the second one is more word for word accurate, but I don't think it communicates as well as the first.

Which is preferable, a word-for-word translation, or a more thought-for-thought translation? I believe a good case for each can be made, and the difference depends on the sophistication of your audience with regard to the scripture.

Brick or block? I think you used this merely as an illustration, because I don't know of any place where "block" is used to translate lebânâh into English. But, I can think of circumstances where block might be better. Growing up where I did we had brick streets and many homes made of brick. Though a brick mason would tell you the differences between them, to me they were all basically the same -- an 8 inch x 4 inch rectangle, about 2 inches deep, and always red. Now, I know there are other types of bricks, but this is the image which pops into my head when I read the word "brick". A translator, knowing me for his audience, and knowing that lebânâh refers to something that is whitish in color, might wish to write something different such as "bricks of white clay" when translating the passage for me. Does this change God's word? I don't think so. I think it communicates God's story. In just accurately translating it "brick", I might actually become misinformed. Which is why it would be best to read it in Hebrew, but that again presupposes a level of knowledge and sophistication that is far beyond the norm.



Sorry to go into such a long response, when basically I am agreeing with you, Izak. The reason I asked about your perceptions of Christian translations of the Old Testament is because I am simply trying to ascertain, from a Jewish perspective, where the deficiencies lay with Christian publications of the scriptures. With a little better knowledge myself, then hopefully I can educate Christians in my church to be more knowledgeable and better understand the scriptures when they read them.
 
I got a question....
I heard that the jews dont invite others to their religion. Why is this so?
and also... What is ur God's name?
 
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