The real truth is , The holy ghost who appeared to Mary is the same Angel named Gabriel of which Jesus was born . Thus making The Angel Gabriel The Father Of The Child Named Jesus . Refer to ; Luke 1 ; 29 ; 35 , Luke 4 ; 18 , And Koran 2 ; 253 , 3 ; 45 , 4 ; 171 and 19 ; 17 - 22 .
How did they get fooled so easy ?
The Christian preachers preach the bible don't teach , know , understand nor can translate the holy scriptures in their languages .
What were the scriptures original languages ?
The old testament called the torah was revealed in Ancient Aramic ( Hebrew )
, The new testament was reavealed in the greek language , And recorded many years after the actual incidents took place .
What does that mean ?
The recorders who recorder it in the greek language were recording incidents that were being spoken in Aramic ( Hebrew ) and Syretic ( Arabic ) .
Am I saying there is no Greek Bible ?
No , That's not what I'm saying . There are many Greek bibles ; Today's New Jehovah's Witnesses are a christian group with their own greek version , None of the christian churches are translating from the original Manuscripts because they don't have access to them
And even if they did have access to these manuscripts , They can't read them because they don't know the language . Ask the head of these churches does He / She read '' Ancient '' Greek or '' Ancient '' Aramic . If they are HONEST they would have to say '' No '' . But it is clear from the Book of Acts , Chapter 2 Verse 1 - 13 that these language were there at the day of Pentecost .
Its important to use that which was translate word for word from the Greek and The Aramic ( Hebrew ) and The Ashuric / Syriac ( Arabic ) so you can check it yourself . Seek Out A Book Entitled '' The Greek Key Study Bible World Bible Publishers Inc . To Check The Translation .
What are you talking about?
Perhaps in the Qur'an one identifies the angel Gabriel with the Holy Spirit. But in the Bible they are NOT one and the same. This can be seen by the very verses from Luke which you cited:
και αποκριθεις ο αγγελος ειπεν αυτη πνευμα αγιον επελευσεται επι σε και δυναμις υψιστου επισκιασει σοι διο και το γεννωμενον αγιον κληθησεται υιος θεου
Who is speaking? Answer: ο αγγελος .
To whom is the angel speaking? Answer: αυτη, the pronoun refering back to its antecedent in verse 30 -- μαριαμ
And what is the subject of the conversation between the angel and Mary? Answer: πνευμα αγιον
So the angel and the Holy Spirit are not one and the same.
Also, take a look at επισκιασει. It carries the sense of the holy, powerful presence of God himself, not just that of a messenger. So when Mary is overshadowed by the power of the Most High it is as in the description of the cloud "covered" (in the Hebrew
sakan ) the tabernacle when the tent was filled with the glory of God (cf. Exodus 40:35 -- וּמָשַׁחְתָּ֣ אֹתָ֗ם כַּאֲשֶׁ֤ר מָשַׁ֙חְתָּ֙ אֶת־אֲבִיהֶ֔ם וְכִהֲנ֖וּ לִ֑י וְ֠הָיְתָה לִהְיֹ֨ת לָהֶ֧ם מָשְׁחָתָ֛ם לִכְהֻנַּ֥ת עֹולָ֖ם לְדֹרֹתָֽם ׃ ).
Also compare with
Matthew 17:5 -- ετι αυτου λαλουντος ιδου νεφελη φωτεινη
επεσκιασεν αυτους και ιδου φωνη εκ της νεφελης λεγουσα ουτος εστιν ο υιος μου ο αγαπητος εν ω ευδοκησα ακουετε αυτου.
Mark 9:7 -- και εγενετο νεφελη
επισκιαζουσα αυτοις και εγενετο φωνη εκ της νεφελης ουτος εστιν ο υιος μου ο αγαπητος ακουετε αυτου.
and
Luke 9:34 -- ταυτα δε αυτου λεγοντος εγενετο νεφελη και
επεσκιαζεν αυτους εφοβηθησαν δε εν τω εισελθειν αυτους εις την νεφελην.
Note how we have the same word, that I have highlighted for you, in those texts which recount the Transfiguration of Jesus when they describe the overshadowing cloud. And likewise, in each account the voice comes out of the cloud identifying Jesus as God's son (not Gabriel's son), a striking reminder of Luke 1:35 where the life that results from the enveloping cloud is identified as the Son of God.
Oh, and just as a point of information, the New Testament was written in Koine Greek, not ancient Greek; and while Hebrew and Aramaic are related languages, they are not the same as you seem to have implied above -- "recording incidents that were being spoken in Aramic ( Hebrew )". Indeed, there were people who could read Aramaic who could not read Hebrew.
And lastly you don't translate word-for-word between any two langauges if you want to get an understanding of the message. Again, let's look at one phrase from the verse above: το γεννωμενον αγιον κληθησεται υιος θεου. Literally that translates into English as follows: "the thing being born holy will be called son of God". Of course, Jesus is not a thing, Jesus is a person. Also, is αγιον to be understood as a predicate adjective or a modifer of the subject? Personally, I prefer to render it "the holy one to be born will be called (the) son of God", in which I have added the English article "the" which I believe is also implied by the syntax.
