:bism: (In the Name of God, the Most Beneficent, the Most Merciful)
Do Muslims want to have Shariah Law in every country where they live? If this is the case, would
they be willing to extend the same freedom to Christians living in predominantly Islamic countries -
so they can be judged by Canadian / American / or European law?
Thanks,
Jim
Hello. Hope you're doing well.
In this case, specifically India, if you understood the matter in context, you'd understand that India already adjudicates disputes and matters according to
shariah (Islamic law) but that they're trying to eliminate this liberty for Indian Muslims.
So, already, you have to understand that this would be like telling the Amish in the United States who are allowed to be exempted from taxes to be taxed; Amish already have the liberty to not be taxed under the matters and therefore if Amish at that point banded together and signed a petition redressing their grievance of this potential change, then that matter should be considered a matter of championing their liberty and self-governance (in specific matters like family law) against wrongful governmental interference with rights already provided to them.
In that same way, there is an extant liberty that Muslims in India have specific to family matters to be able to be determined according to Islamic law, and this liberty is being taken away; and therefore, the petition is a democratic way of both having assessed a threat to the current constitutional rights afforded to Muslims in India and also signed to have this redress addressed by the government as is their right.
Secondly, I think most of the times when a non-Muslim asks this question, there is at the heart of a matter a complete ignorance on what shariah
(Islamic law) is because of the negative press. Therefore, I'm linking you to a post in which I briefly discuss
shariah and hopefully you'll have received a satisfactory answer to those questions you'd asked, and the post is titled, "
What Makes a Person a Muslim?"
Thank you for your query.
