Salam alaykum,
I am currently in the process of acquiring commercial property in France through a vendor financing / seller credit arrangement (the payment is spread over 10 years). The purpose is to avoid conventional bank financing in order to avoid riba, as I have been advised that when there is no third-party lender involved, riba may be avoided.
However, in the seller’s proposed payment schedule, a percentage described as interest is applied to the sale price over time.
My questions are the following:
Thank you in advance.
I am currently in the process of acquiring commercial property in France through a vendor financing / seller credit arrangement (the payment is spread over 10 years). The purpose is to avoid conventional bank financing in order to avoid riba, as I have been advised that when there is no third-party lender involved, riba may be avoided.
However, in the seller’s proposed payment schedule, a percentage described as interest is applied to the sale price over time.
My questions are the following:
- Does this percentage constitute riba, even though the financing is directly provided by the seller and not by a bank?
- In order for the transaction to be Shariah-compliant, must the total deferred price be fixed and agreed upfront as a single sale price (e.g. similar to a murabaha-type structure), rather than separating a principal amount and an interest component?
Thank you in advance.