Marriage to be valid salah

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Desert

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As salamu alaikum..

I heard somewhere that in order for the marriage contract to be valid both husband and wife must be performing salah unless the husband made marriage with a Christian or Jew at the time of the contract?.....

So if the Muslim wife stops performing salah then the marriage becomes invalid?
 
Desert said:
As salamu alaikum..

I heard somewhere that in order for the marriage contract to be valid both husband and wife must be performing salah unless the husband made marriage with a Christian or Jew at the time of the contract?.....

So if the Muslim wife stops performing salah then the marriage becomes invalid?
Click to expand...
Abandoning salah is a sinful act though but it doesn't invalidate nikah

http://islamqa.org/hanafi/askimam/692

[TABLE="class: grid, width: 100%, align: center"]
[TR][TD]I hear that if you are married and your husband does not pray then your marriage in not seen as halaal or valid. Can you please expand on this and please inform me of what ayat or hadeeth that states this. - IslamQA
I hear that if you are married and your husband does not pray then your marriage in not seen as halaal or valid. Can you please expand on this and please...[/TD][/TR][/TABLE]
 
wa'alaikum as'salaam,


If the husband does not pray then it is not permissible for the wife to stay with him, because the one who does not pray is a kaafir according to the sounder of the two scholarly opinions. See the answer to question no. 5208 and 6257

If he did not pray during the marriage, then the marriage is not valid but the child is to be attributed to him because it was born as the result of a marriage which both partners thought was valid.


If he stopped praying after getting married and continued not praying until her ‘iddah ended, then the marriage is annulled. But if he repents and starts to pray, she can go back to him on the basis of a new marriage contract if she agrees to.


Some of the scholars say: if he repents and starts to pray, he may go back to her even if that is after the ‘iddah has ended, so long as she has not got married to another husband.

https://islamqa.info/en/answers/167...-to-divorce-her-until-she-gives-him-the-child
 
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[MENTION=41583]Zzz_[/MENTION]:

It is not permissible to stay with a husband who is like this, because by neglecting the salaah (prayer) he is a kaafir, and it is not permissible for a Muslim woman to marry a kaafir or stay with him.''
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and the verse 60:10 is quoted which is related to the conditions of treaty of Hudaybiya.

So you agree if someone doesn't pray salah then he, literally, becomes kafir like the kuffar of Quraish...?

If he did not pray during the marriage, then the marriage is not valid but the child is to be attributed to him because she was born as the result of a marriage which both partners thought was valid.
Click to expand...

When he, literally, became kafir, and their marriage isn't valid. Then why the child is legitimate..?

Why validity of marriage and legitimacy of their child depends on their ''thought''?

Why their intimacy wasn't considered as adultery..?
 

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