Question regarding khula

  • Thread starter Thread starter innocent
  • Start date Start date
  • Replies Replies 27
  • Views Views 4K
Barbarahajar said:
Salaam...I don't understand that: if the husband doesn't agree with the khula, it can happens or not? I mean the wife can divorce even if the husband doesn't agree? What if I return to my husband the mahr but he doesn't want? BTW Islam give us the chance to divorce,so it means we can do it
Click to expand...

wa'alaikum as'salaam,

the divorce is the right of the husband so only he can issue it. If a wife wants to separate for islamically legitimate reasons and he does not give divorce then she can seek khula, which is a separation initiated by the wife. If he does not accept her khula then she can go to an islamic judge who can assesses the case and pass a binding decision on the matter.
 
innocent said:
Salam
If a wife has asked for khula and the husband refuses to give it is she still obligated to have intimate relations with him. If she refuses is she sinning
Click to expand...

Asalaamualaykum

Dear sister - There is something I have learnt over time and that is certain topics in Islam need a real dialogue between the questioner and a Scholar, for the simple reason that a small change of variables in a situation can change a ruling entirely. These topics in my experience are: Talaq, Khula, Islamic Economics and Inheritance.

When you ask questions of this nature on forums, you will notice that your question will be answered - then the answer will be counter elasticated by another question and then another answer will come along and that will spiral into something that no one recognizes anymore....And to think of it - this is going to possibly make or break a home. Its a too sensitive issue to neglect a Scholar out of the Equation.

Please try your best to contact a scholar regarding this sensitive issue. You can contact many scholars world wide also but I do suggest you type a very honest unbiased record of your circumstances.

You are in all our duas.

- - - Updated - - -

innocent said:
Salam
If a wife has asked for khula and the husband refuses to give it is she still obligated to have intimate relations with him. If she refuses is she sinning
Click to expand...

Asalaamualaykum

Dear sister - There is something I have learnt over time and that is certain topics in Islam need a real dialogue between the questioner and a Scholar, for the simple reason that a small change of variables in a situation can change a ruling entirely. These topics in my experience are: Talaq, Khula, Islamic Economics and Inheritance.

When you ask questions of this nature on forums, you will notice that your question will be answered - then the answer will be counter elasticated by another question and then another answer will come along and that will spiral into something that no one recognizes anymore....And to think of it - this is going to possibly make or break a home. Its a too sensitive issue to neglect a Scholar out of the Equation.

Please try your best to contact a scholar regarding this sensitive issue. You can contact many scholars world wide also but I do suggest you type a very honest unbiased record of your circumstances.

You are in all our duas.
 
azc said:
agree, but if he doesn't, isn't a sinner.
Click to expand...

This is not true bro. If it's a right to the wife, then withholding those rights would be considered a sin. As we know that female and male parts are different so I can understand if he is physically unable to have intercourse (which is where men and women differ) but if he is and refuses those rights to his wife then he is committing a sin because he would be voluntarily withholding something in which he is the ONLY ONE who is able to fulfill.
 
I have found a ruling saying that if he does not pray wife can withhold intimacy. So this is the one I am going by. Even though that isn't the reason for it. Would it be okay? Or will the angels still curse through the night.

- - - Updated - - -

https://islamqa.info/en/42551

[TABLE="class: grid, width: 100%, align: center"]
[TR][TD]Her husband does not do any of his duties, he sleeps a lot and he neglect prayers - islamqa.info
My husband of eight years is a non practising muslim. He lost his job in Nov. 2002 during Ramadan and has been out of work since. He has not once prayed to Alla...[/TD][/TR][/TABLE]
 
*charisma* said:
This is not true bro. If it's a right to the wife, then withholding those rights would be considered a sin. As we know that female and male parts are different so I can understand if he is physically unable to have intercourse (which is where men and women differ) but if he is and refuses those rights to his wife then he is committing a sin because he would be voluntarily withholding something in which he is the ONLY ONE who is able to fulfill.
Click to expand...

despite being able he stays away from intimacy for a LONG TIME commits sin.
But if he doesn't do it for a few nights even without any genuine reason he isn't a sinner.

(according to this fatwa)
https://islamqa.info/en/218686?_e_pi_=7,PAGE_ID10,5315281104
 

Similar Threads

Back
Top