Assalamualaikum,
I had a question about mortgages and houses:
If someone gets a house through conventional mortgage in the US (regular US bank) are they able to sell the house for profit before they pay off the entirety of the loan? I read in a few places that a person cannot sell something that they do not own, but would this principle apply to this situation too since the person is on a loan and doesn't really "own" the house until it is paid off?
I know riba is wrong in either direction, but what if a person wants to get out of riba as soon as possible and sees that their home's market value has doubled or tripled. This way they can sell the existing home for a high price, pay off the existing loan, and then purchase a cheaper home to live in with the remainder of the money.
For example:
(Using small numbers)
Original home: $20
Loan amount left: $10
Home sale (mortgage not paid, but market value is higher): $100
Remainder to purchase cheaper home: $100 - $10 = $90
Hopefully I did the math right, but let me know.
I had a question about mortgages and houses:
If someone gets a house through conventional mortgage in the US (regular US bank) are they able to sell the house for profit before they pay off the entirety of the loan? I read in a few places that a person cannot sell something that they do not own, but would this principle apply to this situation too since the person is on a loan and doesn't really "own" the house until it is paid off?
I know riba is wrong in either direction, but what if a person wants to get out of riba as soon as possible and sees that their home's market value has doubled or tripled. This way they can sell the existing home for a high price, pay off the existing loan, and then purchase a cheaper home to live in with the remainder of the money.
For example:
(Using small numbers)
Original home: $20
Loan amount left: $10
Home sale (mortgage not paid, but market value is higher): $100
Remainder to purchase cheaper home: $100 - $10 = $90
Hopefully I did the math right, but let me know.