In the time of the invasion of Baghdad by the Mongols, after they converted to Islam they continued to rule by an old code of laws established by their predecessor, Ghengis Khan, and did not rule by Shari'ah. Ibn Taymiyyah issued one of his most famous rulings, which said that the Mongols were not Muslims because they did not rule by Shari'ah (thus leading to the Muslim army overthrowing them).
Now, this is essentially the argument a group of Muslims use today to classify all the leaders of Muslim lands as kuffar, because they do not rule by complete Shari'ah.
I understand that this is a false notion, because they are committing kufr of actions and not kufr of belief (as long as they do not actually believe that their laws are superior to the Laws of Allah). There may be a number of reasons why a ruler does not rule by Shari'ah, and while I would not defend such rulers, we also cannot call them kuffar.
I'm also aware of the fact that scholars have never advocated for the overthrowing of a ruler based on the principle (as outlined in several ahadith) that anarchy is worse than oppression. However, Ibn Taymiyya's ruling seems to be the exception.
Can anyone tell me (or point me to a source) what makes the code the Mongols ruled by (Al-Yasiq) different than how rulers govern today in the Muslim lands, and why the Mongols could be declared kaffir and overthrown, but today's rulers we cannot do that with? Thanks.
EDIT: So far I've been finding that it combined a lot of pagan spiritual and religious elements into it, therefor if one were to rule by this, he is committing kufr of belief in that he is combining shirk into the law of the land through these other religious practices. Perhaps that's why the Mongols were considered kuffar when they ruled by other than Shari'ah, because their set of laws introduced deviant religious elements. Whereas today the rulers do not incorporate pagan religious teachings, but rather it is their laws governing everyday life that are against Shari'ah (so they only commit kufr of action, not of belief, thus not being outside the fold of Islam).
Can anyone back this up with additional explanations?
Now, this is essentially the argument a group of Muslims use today to classify all the leaders of Muslim lands as kuffar, because they do not rule by complete Shari'ah.
I understand that this is a false notion, because they are committing kufr of actions and not kufr of belief (as long as they do not actually believe that their laws are superior to the Laws of Allah). There may be a number of reasons why a ruler does not rule by Shari'ah, and while I would not defend such rulers, we also cannot call them kuffar.
I'm also aware of the fact that scholars have never advocated for the overthrowing of a ruler based on the principle (as outlined in several ahadith) that anarchy is worse than oppression. However, Ibn Taymiyya's ruling seems to be the exception.
Can anyone tell me (or point me to a source) what makes the code the Mongols ruled by (Al-Yasiq) different than how rulers govern today in the Muslim lands, and why the Mongols could be declared kaffir and overthrown, but today's rulers we cannot do that with? Thanks.
EDIT: So far I've been finding that it combined a lot of pagan spiritual and religious elements into it, therefor if one were to rule by this, he is committing kufr of belief in that he is combining shirk into the law of the land through these other religious practices. Perhaps that's why the Mongols were considered kuffar when they ruled by other than Shari'ah, because their set of laws introduced deviant religious elements. Whereas today the rulers do not incorporate pagan religious teachings, but rather it is their laws governing everyday life that are against Shari'ah (so they only commit kufr of action, not of belief, thus not being outside the fold of Islam).
Can anyone back this up with additional explanations?
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