"And remember We took a covenant from the children of Israel (to this effect): worship
none but Allah; treat with kindness your parents and kindred, and orphans and those
in need; speak fair to the people; be steadfast in prayer; and give Zakat. then did ye turn
back except a few among you, and ye backslide (even now).
I can understand from the Bible that the Jews paid a 10% tithe and then gave some extra
offerings on top of these.
I saw one website called www dot islamicity dot com / mosque /zakat and it says that
zakat is 2.5% but does not mention why this value is set. It even has a page where you
can fill in details and it tells you how much you have to give.
Does the Quran or Hadiths mention what percent is the zakat for Muslims? Or did the
people living in Muhammad's time already know what amount zakat represented so
Muhammad did not specifically mention that value?
And does the Quran or Hadiths mention that God took a covenant with the children of
Ishmael to give zakat?
Yes, there is obligation for Muslim to give zakat of treasures/properties they have. And from where that 2.5% amount come from?. From this hadith
"There is no obligation upon you - in gold - to have until 20 dinars. If you already have 20 dinars and have passed a haul (one year), then there is charity on her 1/2 dinar. The rest is calculated in accordance with it, and there is no zakat on the treasure, but after a haul. "
(HR Abu Dawud, Tirmidzi)
About your another question "And does the Quran or Hadiths mention that God took a covenant with the children ofIshmael to give zakat?"
Islam is not only for the children of Ishmael (Arab). So, obligation to give zakat is valid for every Muslim who have treasure/properties that have reach the certain amount.
Yes, there is obligation for Muslim to give zakat of treasures/properties they have. And from where that 2.5% amount come from?. From this hadith
"There is no obligation upon you - in gold - to have until 20 dinars. If you already have 20 dinars and have passed a haul (one year), then there is charity on her 1/2 dinar. The rest is calculated in accordance with it, and there is no zakat on the treasure, but after a haul. "
(HR Abu Dawud, Tirmidzi)
Greetings Ardianto,
What does "there is no zakat on the treasure, but after a haul" mean to Muslims living in North
America?
What does "there is no zakat on the treasure, but after a haul" mean to Muslims living in North
America?
Thanks,
Jim
The language used was for a people living in seventh and eighth century Arabia so that they coudl understand what the Prophet (SalAllahu Alayhi Wa Sallam) was telling them.
If I'm correct a modern Muslim, according to Sharia Law, only has to pay two and a half percent of his wealth.
You can try and be clever if you want, but it's not working here I'm afraid.
The language used was for a people living in seventh and eighth century Arabia so that they coudl understand what the Prophet (SalAllahu Alayhi Wa Sallam) was telling them.
If I'm correct a modern Muslim, according to Sharia Law, only has to pay two and a half percent of his wealth.
I can understand the part about the 20 and the 1/2, but what did the part about the
treasure and the haul mean to a Muslim living in the 7th and 8th century?[/QUOTE]
I can understand the part about the 20 and the 1/2, but what did the part about the
treasure and the haul mean to a Muslim living in the 7th and 8th century?
Peace,
Jim[/QUOTE]
After a haul (after a year). This means the next payment of charity is due the following year.
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