I noticed an attack on the noble Prophet (Saws) in regards to chronology of Mary and how some translators of the Holy Qur'an translate al-'Imran as "Amram". There's another verse that says "O sister of Aaron" (Harun), and another where Allah mentions the House of Abraham and 'Imran, and then 2 verses later mentions that the wife of 'Imran was pregnant with Mary the virgin. This seemingly is a chronological mistake but alhamdulillah (all praise be to God), the correct understanding (which I will elaborate below) will only go to show that this in fact isn't a mistake at all, but rather on the contrary goes to show the Omniscience of Allah and the ignorance from the Christian scholars in regards to the Jewish language and it's idioms and phrases. All of my rebuttals are extensive and backed by scholarly verdicts and Tafsir (commentaries) and evidences from the Qur'an, Sunnah and (when dealing with other religions) I do the same. I have a long time tried posting on Reddit, but I have noticed that they remove every article that puts Islam as the obvious winner in the discussion. It's a pity, but here's the full and extensive rebuttal to this misconception/lie:

Title: Extensive response: Mary daughter of al-'Imran/Amram/Sister of Aaron: Chronological mistake? No it isn't!

So the missionary claim is that there is a historical and chronological mistake on “Muhammad’s part” while there is no mistake at all, as usual. The only thing the missionaries have done is to prove their ignorance in the linguistics of the Bible and the Qur’an, and this so called “Mistake” just goes to further prove that the author of the Bible and Qur’an is of the exact same origin, namely Allah/Elohim (God) (not all of it though, since Biblical scholars now have confirmed various human additions and forgeries). An author is recognized by the idioms, phrases and words he uses, which indeed is the case here as well! They base their claim on the fact that Allah says “The house of Ibrahim” and his descendants, and then “The house of al-'Imran”, and his descendants, and they claim that Surah al-’Imran is about the Biblical “Amram” (i.e. Father to Moses, Aron..). But this is not what the scholars of Tafsirs have said, they say this with an intent to discredit the prophet-hood of Muhammad because that would mean that Muhammad thought Maryam lived at the time of Moses, but it backfires, as I will prove below. Al-'Imran is NOT Amram, it is Joachim, and the Greek name "Joachim" (Ιωακείμ) literally means what "al-'Imran" means in Arabic. So they've shot themselves in the foot. They just proved that they don't know the meaning of the names of their religious figures/persons. Also, Moses and Aaron are from Abraham's lineage, so there is no need to mention "House of Amram", the Sura is about Joachim, and Allah mentioned his him and his house. So that also means that it's Hanna (Joachim's wife) that is mentioned in verse 35. And the reason why verse 19:48 says "O sister of Aaron" is because they spoke like that. They called pious people names of other pious people. I have given several examples of it in the last part of this article. So no chronological error, no nothing. They just don't know how Jews spoke back then because they usually don't know much about the Jewish orthodox faith and the Hebrew classical language.

Introduction:

The verses in question is:
“Verily, Allah has chosen Adam and Nuh and the House of Ibrahim and theHouse of ` Imranover the worlds”
(The Holy Qur’an 3:33)
[Mention, O Muḥammad], when the wife of ʿImrān said, "My Lord, indeed I have pledged to You what is in my womb, consecrated [for Your service], so accept this from me. Indeed, You are the Hearing, the Knowing."
(The Holy Qur’an 3:35)
and

"O sister of Aaron, your father was not a man of evil, nor was your mother unchaste."
(The Holy Qur’an 19:28)
And the so called "mistakes" are:


  1. Muhammad mixed up Virgin Maryam with Miriam of Moses time and thought "Amram" was Mary’s father
  2. Amram’s wife did not give birth to Virgin Mary, why did 3:35 say so?
  3. Mary is not the sister of Aaron, it was Miriam. Why did Qur’an say so?
  4. Did Allah include or omit Moses and Aaron in verse 3:33?


I have seen a lot of people answering this attack but they all leave out one thing (the most important thing). I will refute each and every point above, leaving nothing unanswered!

1. Muhammad mixed up the Mary with Miriam and thought there only was one Amram and made him Mary’s father

So the missionary claim is that there is a historical and chronological mistake on “Muhammad’s part” while there is no mistake at all, as usual. The only thing the missionaries have done is to prove their ignorance in the linguistics of the Bible and the Qur’an, and this so called “Mistake” just goes to further prove that the author of the Bible and Qur’an is of the exact same origin (mostly, since Biblical scholars now have confirmed various human additions). An author is recognized by the idioms, phrases and words he uses, which indeed is the case here as well! They base their claim on the fact that Allah says “The house of Ibrahim” and his descendants, and then “The house of al-'Imran”, and his descendants, and they claim that Surah al-’Imran is about the Biblical “Amram” (i.e. Father to Moses, Aron..). But this is not what the scholars of Tafsir have said, they say this with an intent to discredit the prophet-hood of Muhammad because that would mean that Muhammad thought Maryam lived at the time of Moses, but it backfires, as I will prove below. Let’s dig a little deeper and connect all the dots and make sense of it:

Biblical name Amram: עַמְרָם
Meaning:"Kindredof the High*; i.e., "friend of Jehovah."*
Definition of Amram:"an exalted people; their sheaves; handfuls of corn"

(Source: king james bible online website)
Also:

“Amram
Probably from “am” and “ruwm”;high people; Amram, the name of two Israelites – Amram.”
(source:Strong's Exhaustive Concordance)
So the main definition and focus is literally on God’s people being high/exalted, with the significant words “high” and “exalted”.

Biblical name Joachim: Ιωακείμ

The name “Joachim” the Christians say was Mary’s father, is actually a Greek name. The Greek name "Joachim" (Ιωακείμ) mainly appears in the Protoevangelium of James, which is the source they've drawn their conclusion from. This is a book they criticize Muhammad for, they say that it’s a false/rejected Christian book having no basis in the Gospels and that Muhammad derived a story from it about the shaking of the date tree by Mary, hence: he must be a false prophet. How they concluded this is beyond any sane persons mind. Nevertheless, it is hilarious how they criticize the Qur’an for containing a story from the Protoevangelium of James, but they use the exact same book to confirm the name of Mary’s Father’s (because they have nothing else), so that they in turn can bash on Islam for mentioning “another” name for her father (i.e. ‘Imran). It doesn’t work that way! Either you reject it completely which means that you have zero clues about the original name of “Joachim”, or accept it and in turn oblige yourselves to accept the date-tree story as well, and then criticize the Qur’an for using “the wrong” name for Joachim. You can’t have the cake and eat it too, as they say. But they cherry pick, as they usually do with religious Scriptures.

The name "Joachim" is related to the Hebrew name "Yehoyakim" (יְהוֹיָקִים), which means "the LORD raises up" or "the LORD establishes." The Greek form "Ioakeim" or "Joachim" has a similar meaning, emphasizing the idea of God's establishment and God's raising up:

Yehoyaqim: "the LORD raises up ," three Israelites
Original Word: יְהוֹיָקִים Part of Speech: Proper Name Masculine Transliteration: Yehoyaqim Phonetic Spelling: (yeh-ho-yaw-keem')Definition: "the LORD raises up ", three Israelites
NAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Originfrom Yhwh andqum Definition"the LORD raises up ," three Isr.

(source:biblehub website)

Again, the focus is on God’s people being raised/exalted with the words “raises up”. So by now we can literally conclude that the Greek name “Joachim” (or Hebrew name Yehoyakim) means “Raise up” or “Exalted” as in raising God’s people or exalting them. But what about ‘Imran, what does this name mean?

Arabic name ‘Imran: عِمْرَٰنَ

The Arabic name "'Imran" is not really even an Arabic name, but even though this is the case, the word is (according to various old dictionaries) said to literally mean "Build up", “prosperity”, and "Exalted nation", so this goes to show that ‘Imran is THE EXACT MEANING OF THE NAME USED IN THE BIBLE for “Joachim” (and also "Amram"):

تَعْمُرَان Sultan Qaboos Encyclopedia of Arab Names (Sultan Qaboos University, 1985)موسوعة السلطان قابوس لأسماء العربPermalink (الرابط القصير إلى هذا الباب): arabiclexicon. hawramani. com / ? p =116398#3453bb تَعْمُرَان من (ع م ر) علم منقول عن الجملة بمعنى تعيشان زمنا طويلا.

Translation:

BUILD UP
تَعْمُرَان (pronounced: ta'muran)
من (ع م ر) علم منقول عن الجملة بمعنى تعيشان زمنا طويلا.
Translation:
تَعْمُرَان (ta'muran) - 'Imran (a given name)
من (ع م ر) علم منقول عن الجملة بمعنى تعيشان زمنا طويلا.
From (ع م ر) a transferred knowledge about the phrase with the meaning of living for a long time.
A simple translator such as “Google translate” literally translates the above text to:

“Build up”

Also:

“Not a common name, Imran is popular within Arabic culture, and means 'exalted nation', 'prosperity' and 'happiness'.”


(source: bounty.com/pregnancy-and-birth/baby-names/baby-name-search/i/imran)


The definitions "raising up" or "prosperity" are all there between the Arabic name 'Imran and the Greek and Hebrew names Joachim, Yehoyakim and Amram. Though they have distinct linguistic and cultural origins, mean the exact same thing! The Qur’an is insanely accurate in using the name ‘Imran for Joachim and all Praise is due to Him, how could it not be? It is the last word of God.

‘Imran literally carries the same meaning as both of these names, and since these names aren’t Arabic names, God could have combined them into one name. Why? Because He’s God. He does whatever He wills, even though these missionaries may disdain it. But I would say that they are two distinct names (I.e. 'Imran and Amram), mostly because the name ends with an "N", while the Hebrew name ends with an "M". Very small difference that doesn't really change the definition but the pronunciation is different. And Allah knows best!

2. Amram’s wife did not give birth to Virgin Mary, why did 3:35 say so?

This is really already refuted above in point 1, since al-’Imran really isn’t Amram, but rather Joachim, and Moses and Aaron were included in verse 3:33 by mentioning Abraham's House, there was no need to mention the House of Amram, it's already included, but there was a need to mention the House of ‘Imran, because Allah never omits or forgets to exalt or mention His pious people where exaltation and mentioning is due. This doubt is rebutted so let’s continue to the last one below.

3. Mary is not the sister of Aaron, it was Miriam. Why did Qur’an say so?

God in the Bible uses a lot of idioms, rare words and speaks poetically, and when the case is such, it doesn’t come as a shocker that the case is exactly the same in His Last Revelation, The Qur’an.

There's literally an EXACT same scenario in Jewish Scriptures where they call Abraham's wife "O sister of (name)" and this "name" is NOT her brother. It was LITERALLY a Jewish custom, which just further solidifies that the Qur'an is from Allah (The One and Only God, The God). How would even an Arab who's illiterate know this? There's no chance! Their scholars didn't even know it! Which is the reason they're attacking the Prophet (and peace and blessings pe upon him):

1. Midrash Rabbah (Genesis Rabbah 45:8): In this midrash, Sarah, the wife of Abraham, is referred to as the "sister of Abimelech." This title is given as an honorific expression acknowledging her righteous qualities and the incident in Genesis 20 where Abraham and Sarah encounter Abimelech, king of Gerar. Here, "sister of Abimelech" is not meant to be a literal sibling relationship, because Abimelech isn't her real brother, but rather a way of addressing Sarah in a context that emphasizes her virtue, just as was done to Mary (in Surah 19:28). So this is literally an exact same scenario, "O sister of [name]" and they're not real siblings.

2. The Bible also says:
“he had a wife ofthe daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elizabeth."
(Luke 1:5, RSV)
Elizabeth is literally not the daughter of Aaron, yet she is called as such in the Bible. Why? because she’s from His lineage. It’s an idiom, a Biblical such. This is the language of the Books of God.

3. Another example is:

“And the crowds that went before him and that followed him shouted, "Hosannatothe Son of David!…”
(Matthew 21:9 RSV)
Jesus is literally not the son of David, just as Elizabeth wasn't the daughter of Aaron, yet He is called as such. Why? You know the drill by now!

4. Talmud - Bava Batra 16b: In this Talmudic passage, Rabbi Yehoshua ben Korcha is referred to as "son of Egypt." Rabbi Yehoshua ben Korcha was a Jewish sage, but he is referred to as "son of Egypt" to highlight his unique situation. According to the Talmud, he was born to Jewish parents while they were in Egypt, and the term "son of Egypt" is used to emphasize this specific background

5. Talmud - Berakhot 7b: In this Talmudic passage, there's a discussion about Rav Sheishet, a Jewish sage who was blind. He is referred to as "Rav Sheishet the son of the brother of Rav Nachman." This title emphasizes his close connection to Rav Nachman, even though he wasn't actually Rav Nachman's literal nephew.

So when God says in the Qur’an:

“O sister of Harun, neither your father was a man of evil nor was your mother unchaste.".”
(The Holy Qur’an Ch 19)


Why does it necessarily have to mean that she is a literal sister to Aaron? Make that Qur’anic rule clear to me, if it really exists! But it doesn't. The fact of the matter is that it is even indicated that they aren’t talking about her parents or a literal sister IN THIS VERY VERSE:

“0 sister of Harun, neither your father WAS a man of evil nor WAS your mother unchaste.".”

(The Holy Qur’an)


Mentioning a "Mother" and "Father" people who WERE (past tense), and not people who ARE. Allah didn't do that by accident. This is how you know that Allah doesn't make any mistakes in His last Revelation. Her parents are still alive at this moment when she was carrying Jesus in this specific incidence, why would they be saying "Your parents weren't. The matter is clear as the sun.

4. Here's the evidences that Christians don't know anything in regards to the Jewish customs and the language of the Jews:

Just in case they bring up the hadith where the Prophet (saws) responds to this misconception, namely:

"When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read" O sister of Harun" (i. e. Hadrat Maryam) in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born much before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) I asked him about that, whereupon he said: The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostles and pious persons who had gone before them."
And say that our beloved Prophet claimed that Mary had a real brother named after Aaron, the answer of the Prophet (peace be upon him) in the Hadith doesn't necessarily imply that at all. The Hadith says that people in the past used to call each other by the names of pious people and prophets. It does not necessarily mean that they legally changed their own names to match those of the prophets or pious individuals, but rather, they used those names as a form of respect or admiration, just as they did with Mary. There's some scholars (as I have heard) saying that there was a real brother to her named "Aaron", but this Hadith doesn't necessarily imply that. There's literally no proof of that as far as I know. What the Prophet said that they used to do in the past is in fact a real Jewish custom, and what we read in the Ayah (verse) is also repeated in the Bible in various instances, for example:

In the New Testament, Jesus calls Simon son of Jonah as "Peter" (Greek: Petros):


"Jesus replied, 'Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by flesh and blood, but by my Father in heaven. And I tell you that you are Peter, and on this rock, I will build my church.'" (Matthew 16:17-18)
Here, Jesus calls Simon "Peter," to symbolize his leadership role in the early Christian community. You don't see Muslims claiming that the Bible confuses Simon with Peter and that it's a contradiction. That would be foolish. The Qur'an is - just like the Bible - the Book of God, it is their disbelief in it being from God that makes them draw quick conclusions. Surely, if this "chronological mistake" were to be in their own Book, they would be the first ones digging for instances in the OT to defend themselves. We don't really need to do that, but here we are, I had to because it's such a ridiculous attack and it is labeled as the "greatest attack on the Qur'an".

What is kind of hilarious is, the Nation of Israel didn't always have that name, but the name was used for it as - you guessed it - a form of respect and admiration to Prophet Israel, and the name just stuck on. So the actual name of the Nation of Israel is because of this very custom. It is indeed amazing how could have missed a custom SO widespread and SO habitual, explains a lot why they are in the state they are in today.

Nevertheless, here's some Christian history references, just to hit the nail on the head, where they practiced this very custom, if the Bible isn't enough (you never know...):

Hagiography: In Christian hagiographic literature, saints and holy men and women are often referred to by titles or names that emphasize their piety and spiritual achievements even though they had absolutely different given names. For example, Saint Francis of Assisi is sometimes affectionately called "Poverello" (the Little Poor Man) to highlight his humility and devotion to poverty.

Folklore and Legends: In various folktales and legends, characters are sometimes given epithets or titles that reflect their virtues or noble qualities. These epithets serve to honor and respect the characters within the narrative and perpetuate their positive traits in storytelling.

I hope all of this completely shuts the door to this dreaded misconception, Jazakum Allahu Khairan

Conclusion:

There's more examples but time is not my best friend right now so I might do a part 2 where I only post examples, we'll see. Nevertheless, this is a well known Jewish custom. It's a little disturbing that the Christians of Najran didn't have a clue about it. Do they even read the books of their learned ones? Food for thought ! And also, what should then be said of the Christian scholars of today? Think about that one for a minute!

There's no chronological error, the Sura is about Joachim (who carries the exact same definition as the Arabic name 'Imran), the "Wife of 'Imran" is Anna (or Hanna), and Moses and Aaron are included in verse 3:33 under Abraham's House, Allah added Joachim's House because He doesn't omit when it is due to mention. The phrase "O sister of Aaron" is literally a Jewish custom, there's several Jewish examples and even an EXACT same example. Islam wins again!


Allah bless you
/By Exion!

OBS: I do this for the sake of Allah only, so you don't even have to credit me if you repost this rebuttal, it would be nice though . But as I said, nobody even knows my real identity. I do this solely for a reward with our Lord.