I mean why isn't prohet mohamed(may peace be upon him) known in bibles.since all the other prophet was mention in ya books.we believe the first prophet is adam the last is mohamed,and yet ya belive the first prophet is adam da last is jesus.....right also we believe dat prophet mohamed was after jesus..essa just wondering y our most beloved prophet not mention....................
can someone explain why did muhammad sahib come specifically at that time? what was the state of the world? and what did muhammads messege change to the current things that where occuring in the world.
Prophet's are sent when the people are so deviated from the real religion that they need a prophet to guide them back to the true path.
Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon Him) was sent to a people who had forgotten the worship on only one God, and had turned to idol worship. They were an immoral community, they had all kinds of prostitution and illegal sexual intercourse, they were very heavy drinkers, they were very oppressive of women, they used to murder their daughters at a young age, some even buried them alive... etc. That's all that comes to mind at the moment. Also, the Arabs (in Arabia) of the time were not united.
Islam abolished all these practises and replaced them with something better. Idol worship was replaced with worshipping God alone, all kinds of prostitution and sexual relationships outside of marriage were made illegal, as was drinking, women were given their rights, and the murder of young girls was made illegal. The Arab people became united under the Islamic rule.
The Bible doesn't mention Prophet Mohammad (S.A.W.)
cos they dont accept him as a prophet, they accept most of the others but the message he bought doesnt really follow what is told in the Bible!!!
The Bible doesn't mention Prophet Mohammad (S.A.W.)
cos they dont accept him as a prophet, they accept most of the others but the message he bought doesnt really follow what is told in the Bible!!!
the ones written by humans probably don't (some say they do.. who knows.. who cares), but the gospel revealed to jesus does.
Jesus said "“…he shall give you another comforter…” (John 14:15-16)
Jesus said: “I have many things to say unto you, but you can’t bear them now…he will show you things to come…(John 16:14). The message of Jesus was incomplete. Another prophet was needed to guide mankind.
Gospel of Barnabas: “…Muhammad is his blessed name.” (Ch. 96-97)
A Prophet Like Moses: God said to Moses, "I will raise up a Prophet… like unto thee. I will put my words in his mouth, & he shall speak them all...” (Deuteronomy18:18)
Last edited by shible; 01-18-2007 at 04:16 PM.
Reason: update
A Prophet Like Moses: God said to Moses, "I will raise up a Prophet… like unto thee. I will put my words in his mouth, & he shall speak them all...” (Deuteronomy18:18)
Already been refuted. I kindly ask you not to speak about the Torah unless you know about what you speak:
Many Muslims will claim that the Torah itself (apparently the "uncorrupted" part) predicts the coming of their so-called prophet some time after the giving of the Torah. All Bible translations are directly from the Hebrew, all of them literal.
Where Did They Get That Idea?
The relevant verse of the Torah is as follows:
Deuteronomy 18:18 A prophet I will raise up for them from amongst their brethren like you and I will give my words into his lips and he will speak about them all that I command him.
We must ask the following: who is "I", who is "you", who is "them/their"? "I" is G-d, "you" is Moses, "them/their" refers to the Israelites.
So a paraphrase could be: G-d will raise up for the Israelites a prophet from the Israelites' brethren some time in the future that will be like Moses and speak the words of G-d.
Having established that, what's the connection?
The assertion is that "from amongst their brethren" refers to the Ishmaelites, and as Muslims assert many times, Mohammed is descended from Abraham through Ishmael.
In order to properly analyze this, I will not make a table comparing Moses, Jesus, and Mohammed, as many do on both Christian and Muslim websites in order to pervert the meaning of this verse.
Instead, I will make a minor sidestep into the world of Jewish thought.
For those of us that do not have the presumption that the Torah is wrong and faulty, there is a list of thirteen basic rules on how to deduce meaning from the Torah. They are provided as the introduction to Sifre, and are recited in the preliminary portion of the daily morning prayers.
Just as in the Torah where there are laws that are obviously "just" and those that we cannot comprehend, a parallel applies here. Some rules make sense, and others are assertions of rules. I will make use of two rules that make a good deal of sense.
Rule number 2 states quite simply "mig'zerah shavah" which means "From a decree of equality".
Rule number 12 is that "davar halamed m'inyano, v'davar halamed m'sofo" which is often translated like "An item is taught/clarified from it's context, or from nearby verses."
Why these two rules? Rule number 2 tells us that if we have a word in one location that is vague, and the same word elsewhere more clear, we can use one to clarify the other. The reason for the second rule will be evident shortly. The Rebuttal
Just a chapter back, in Deuteronomy 17, we find a similar phrase, but the voice is different. This time Moses is delivering a message from G-d directly to the Israelites, speaking to the Israelites as a single group, instead of us hearing what G-d says to Moses.
Deuteronomy 17:15 You shall put (appoint) upon yourself a king that G-d will pick him; from amongst your brethren you shall appoint a king; you will not be able to give upon yourself a foreign man that is not your brother.
This verse, just a chapter behind the verse about the prophet is quite explicit. It uses the phrase "amongst (their/your) brethren" and then clarifies that a foreigner, which is definitely a non-Israelite, is not the Israelite's brother.
For further explicitness of the term foreigner, let's turn to Exodus 12.
Exodus 12:43 And G-d said to Moses and Aaron: This is the ordinance of the Passover offering, every son of a foreigner shall not eat of it.
Conclusion
Since we can now see that a foreigner does not take part of something as central as the Passover celebration, which is incumbant on all Israelite males when the Temple stands, we can see that a foreigner is simply a non-Israelite, and it doesn't matter their genealogy.
That being said, we have also shown that a foreigner is someone who is not from "amongst the brethren" of the Israelites.
This being said, it is an incredible leap of both faith and logic to assume that Mohammed the Ishmaelite is predicted by the Torah as coming as a new prophet of a new religion for the Jews.
Does the Gospel of Barnabus really say that?? I think thats one of the parts they took out...:X
Again, the text for the "Gospel of Barnabas" that we have is a medieval forgery. There is only the sketchiest evidence that an 'original' "Gospel of Barnabas" ever existed, even if it did we have no idea what it might have contained.
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nahhh lol
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