"`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
This verse has nothing to do with corruption of the Law.
The verse says:
How do you say, "We are wise, and the Law of the L-rd is with us"? Verily, behold it is in vain, he made a false scribes' pen. Wise men were ashamed, they were broken and caught; behold they rejected the word of the L-rd, now what wisdom have they?
(Jeremiah 8:8-9)
One who looks at the immediate content of these verses see that G-d poses a question about why the false scribes claim to be wise. Then in verse 9 it answers that question by saying "behold they rejected the word of the L-rd, now what wisdom have they?" There is no mention of a "corrupted" Tanakh. If the Tanakh was corrupted in verse 8, why is G-d calling it his word in verse 9? This is what you fail to address.
This should be read:
"Say to them, 'This is what the L-RD says: If you do not listen to me and follow MY LAW, which I have set before you, and if you do not listen to the words of my servants the prophets, whom I have sent to you again and again (though you have not listened) then I will make this house like Shiloh and this city an object of cursing among all the nations of the earth.'"
(Jeremiah 26:4-6)
How could Israel follow the law (Torah), if it had been corrupted? This presupposes that the Torah was uncorrupt and available during the time of Jeremiah. Furthermore, since Jeremiah wrote Jeremiah 8:8 he would know best the meaning of the passage in question. Clearly, we see Jeremiah appealing to the availability of the Law in Jeremiah 26:4-6 implying that the scribes did not corrupt the Torah, but simply did not follow it. Example: Is it hypocrisy to write a Torah the word of G-d and then not follow it? Of course!
In either translation, we clearly see that the Jews had so much corrupted the Bible with their man-made cultural laws, that they had turned the Bible into a lie!
No we do not. All we see is your deceitful attempt to try and take the Tanakh out of context.
See Also Deuteronomy 31:25-29 where Moses peace be upon him predicted the corruption/tampering of the Law (Bible) after his death.
The Muslim writer claims that "The Book of Moses predicted that the Law (Torah) will get corrupted." The biblical reference that is given is Deuteronomy 31:25-29. However, the biblical reference does not give the slightest hint to support the Muslim's claim. Moses wrote, "Take this Book of the Law and place it besides the ark of the covenant of the L-RD your God. There it will remain as a witness against you." Moses predicted that the Book of the Law would remain and be a witness against the people of Israel. So, the reference proves the exact opposite of what the Muslim claims. The reference proves that the scripture would remain and be a reliable witness against the people of Israel! If the Book of the Law were not to remain or were to become totally corrupted, it could not be an abiding witness against the nation of Israel.
"he gave this command to the Levites who carried the ark of the covenant of the L-RD: "Take this Book of the Law and place it beside the ark of the covenant of the L-RD your G-d. There it will remain as a witness against you. For I know how rebellious and stiff-necked you are. If you have been rebellious against the L-RD while I am still alive and with you, how much more will you rebel after I die! Assemble before me all the elders of your tribes and all your officials, so that I can speak these words in their hearing and call heaven and earth to testify against them. For I know that after my death you are sure to become utterly corrupt and to turn from the way I have commanded you. In days to come, disaster will fall upon you because you will do evil in the sight of the L-RD and provoke him to anger by what your hands have made."
(Deuteronomy 31:25-29) (NIV)
Secondly, Moses stated, "For I know that after my death you are sure to become utterly corrupt and to turn from the way I have commanded you." Notice, Moses does not claim that Book of Moses will become utterly corrupted. Moses wrote that the people of Israel would become corrupted, not the scriptures. So again, the scriptural references given by the Muslim author contradicts directly his assertion. He claims that the scriptures would be corrupted, but his reference states that the people would become corrupted.
The people of Israel carefully safe-guarded the commandments of the L-RD. And, after the temple of Sulaiman (Solomon) was built, Moses' two stone tablets were still in existence. They were in the ark of the covenant that was the innermost court of the temple called, the Holy of Holies. So, to have the original stone tablets of the Law in the temple, the people of Israel had to have guarded the original stone text for hundreds of years.
There was nothing in the ark except the two stone tablets that Moses had placed in it at Horeb, where the L-RD made a covenant with the Israelites after they came out of Egypt.
(1 King 8:9) (NIV)
The Book of Moses predicted that the Law (Bible) will get corrupted. The Book of Jeremiah which came approximately 826 years after did indeed confirm this corruption.
No it did not. Your claims have been refuted.
As for the arguments, against the "new testament" or "gospel" they were never true in my belief, so who cares who wrote them!
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Re: Evidence that the Bible is Truth.
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