My question is that a man divorces his wife for 1st time, and within 20-25 days after that, they rejoined and intercourse happened.
Later on he divorced her again after a month.
Then after 3 months he gave 3rd divorce. Now they are again living together as husband and wife, as they claim that there was less period of time between 1st two talaq, so only 2 divorces are effective and 3rd chance is still left.
If the correct words were used all three divorces took place. The time difference makes no difference.
In order to find out if the divorces took place inform us what words were used.
Show no concern for the praise of one whose praise cannot adorn you in any way, nor for the blame of those whose blame cannot dishonor you. And seek the praise of the One whose Praise is all honor and whose blame is all disgrace. Ibn Qayyim
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