Originally Posted by Hugo -1. Page xvi and xvii Azami) writes: “.. the earliest dated Greek manuscripts of the Gospels were written c. the 10th century...”. citing as a source Bruce Metzger who wrote “This is one of the earliest dated Greek manuscripts of the Gospel... “.
Why does Azami leave out the word "one" which in this context is critical to understanding, frankly it looks like he is misleading deliberately or unintentionally the reader into thinking that all NT text are 10th century or later.
Gossamer Skye Not a single book from the NT has survived in the original author's handwriting, the closest thing being a fragment dated c. 100-115 and containing six verses of John 18 (footnote) Here I must interject that this date is pure guesswork, a subjective enterprise that can occasionally run with...
Hugo - I asked why did Azami leave out the important word "one" and I see no answer to that.
Original Posted by Hugo - 2. Bottom of Page xvii Dr Azami says "The only known facts are that the OT books appeared on the scene only to disappear promptly for a few hundred years, before abruptly resurfacing. Again they disappeared without trace for many centuries, and were once again suddenly recovered." Ignoring the impossibility of these being the 'only' known facts, Dr Azami at this point gives a ref to 2 Kings 14-16 (meaning chapters 14 to 16?). One supposes that these chapters would confirm his 'known facts' but the chapters list the names together with tiny biographies of Kings for the two Jewish kingdoms: Israel and Judah spanning about 200 years. In this list of kings There is one ref to the Torah in 2 Kings 14:6 and a very oblique one in verse 14 to the temple being robbed (where a copy was kept) and several refs to the Book of The Chronicles of the Kings. Hardly conclusive is it?
Gossamer Skye : I am at a loss at to why this is a difficult point -- you may actually use google the search feature and you'll get youtube vids by Jews speaking of the law of Moses being lost-- is it a matter of reference of vexation of bringing such a known point to the light?
Hugo - this is irrelevant as I am asking WHY did Dr Azami give a reference that has no content relative to his claims. This is not about whether its true or not its about whether Azami is showing his quality as a scholar.
Missing books of the OT:
1. The Book of the Wars of the Lord(Sepher Milkhamot Adonai)
“Therefore it is said in the Book of the Wars of the LORD, “Waheb in Suphah, And the wadis of the Arnon,” (Numbers 21:14) etc
Hugo - so when Dr Azami speaks of OT books he includes everything so 39 plus I don't know how many you listed and all these books were lost and found TWICE. Not credible is it and as my original point the ref he gives hardly covers all this.
Original Posted by Hugo - 3. On page xx he says “.. non Muslim sources however, some of whom feel no hesitation in referring to their own Lord Jesus Christ as an adulterer or a homosexual, to David as an adulterous schemer, or to Solomon as an idolater”.
This is a misleading idea because nowhere in the Bible does it say Jesus was an adulterer or homosexual but it does say the other two things. So here he is either muddled or ignorant of simple facts and sources. Muslims might believe in the purity of the prophets but the Bible records Noah as getting drunk, Lot as sleeping with his daughters, Joseph as being drunk with his brothers, Abraham as a liar, Sarah as a spiteful vindictive women, Moses as trying to take the place of God and so on. Why does it do this is if it’s not true, what crazy redactor would leave all that in so here we have deliberate confusion over ‘non-Muslim sources' and a denial of what must be the truth.
covered by me here also by me from a different thread:
Christ committed adultery first of all with the woman at the well about whom St. John tells us. Was not everybody about Him saying: "Whatever has he been doing with her?" Secondly, with Mary Magdalene, and thirdly with the woman taken in adultery whom he dismissed so lightly. Thus even Christ, who was so righteous, must have been guilty of fornication before He died. (D. Martin Luthers Werke, kritische Gesamtausgabe [Hermann Bohlau Verlag, 1893], vol. 2, no. 1472, April 7 - May 1, 1532, p. 33)
Hugo - this may be what someone wrote but it is NOT a biblical source is it and that is my point. I can find a site that says that prophet Mohammed was all sorts of nasty things, would you accept it just because someone said it?
Originally Posted by Hugo - 4. On page xxi he speaks of a ‘most accurate Qu’ran in the world’ so there must be inaccurate ones and hence inaccurate manuscript and never quite explains how he knows it is the most accurate.
No, Only you are supposing that the others are false because oh it would be so delightful, the Medinah Mus'haf if you have bothered with a two second research you'd have come up with:
Hugo - I said nothing about it being false I just asked in essence what did he mean and how doe he know its the most accurate. You seem to confirm it below and Dr Azami later inn the book talks of 'errors'
''However, authors and publishers have not been able to include the Qur'anic verses in documents and personal writings, except in normal fonts, which lack many of the aesthetic aspects that the Uthmanic calligraphy has. This has resulted in some instances of text distortions, confusion of reading or drops of certain items.''
Now you tell me honesty If there were such a thing as an 'original bible' from the mouth of Jesus in such ancient text, or different shattered handwriting, would you be able to read it as I have just done with this level of confidence and fluidity?