
I suppose by treason you mean he rebels. And as I said before this is not a condition. The Shari'ah does not define it and it was alien to Muslims for 14 centuries.And proceeds to commit treason.
akh, I have to disagree; it is because the ahadith say it and the ijmaa' of the early generations clarifies it.It's not as simple as apostacising from Islam.
akhee, this is a misunderstanding. You will never see this word being used in the work of classical/traditionalist scholars. why? because they never needed to say it or use this line of argument to explain this hadd. They all understood what it really meant. The first people, who brought up the issue of treason, were some of the contemporary scholars and dai'is. And they did so to explain the ruling to people in the west. So they said "apostay is just like a treason. If an apostate rebels then he is committing a treason and what should the punishment for treason be?". Hence, in order to refute this error the traditionalist camp said that apostasy itself is a treason against an Islamic state: meaning the apostate does not have commit a treason by spreading fitnah or rebelling because him leaving Islam is itself a treason.But, what certain scholars may say is lump the two together i.e apostacising and commiting treason are (always) one and the same.
This is how the use of this word came into existence.
brother then you are agreeing with the error of contemporaies and you are against the statement of Allah's Messenger (sal-allahu alayhi wa sallam) and the ijmaa' of the Salaf. They never made any distinction or put this condition. The conditions are only those which define within the Shari'ah, which I mentioned in my previous post.I am of the opinion that there is a difference between the two because otherwise we are oversimplicising this law.
and Allah knows best