What was the nature of Jesus' (alayhi salam) birth?

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i have no problem with believing the above yet it still does not change the fact that allah decides to act at some point. there is a time before, during, and after he makes the effect materialize. let us remember that allah knows from all eternity what he is going to do and when he is going to do so but this does not change the fact that at the appropriate moment, he wills that his purpose be accomplished. in this case, at the appropriate moment, he wills that the effect of speech be materialized to moses. that once again is an action and action takes place within the realm of time. time was created by allah and as such he does indeed enter hid creation.


What is flawed and inconsistent is you logic.
You assume that an atemporal omnitemporal omnipotent being cannot cause an effect at a certain point of time inside the temporal while still being outside it.
If He is ever inside and bound by the temporal, he would not be atemporal, isnt he?
That is, unless you don't believe that he is atemporal,omnipotent and omnitemporal, which I completely understand because as a christian you are bound by the believe that he is neither, otherwise how can you ever reconcile the fact about God being on earth and doing mundane human things such as washing himself after doing his business. By your own logic, God has to be inside the creation all the time because, unless you believe otherwise, the universe is always sustained by him, meaning he is dispensing affairs at all times.

Most hilarious is, you are speaking here as if you understand the details of relationships between outside creation-inside creation (time-space), while even the best theoretical physicists do not even yet the scratched the surface of time-space understanding.
You only work on assumptions and logic and I have proven as above that you failed spectacularly.

It is also transparent to see that this is yet another of yet desperate attempt, thinking you can deceive us by plastering the word "logic" here and there to try to deceive


btw, this thread has nothing to do with the trinity. i spoke of it at length during the other thread and it would seem that you failed to participate. that however is not my problem.


All you were doing in the trinity thread was giving two biblical verses in which a third person was talking abut Jesus and holy spirit as proof of trinity . no direct references by jesus, badly interpreted and badly translated, and I have pointed out to you.
And when in turn GS (with your cheerleading) asked me about the similar proof about direct references from Allah that Jesus is not God, I gave you several qur'an verses and I dont have to add that they are in its original forms, so you cant accuse me for bad translations and interpretations), and when I insisted, again to provide me with similar biblical verses, all you could do was that my argument was flawed. unlike the concept of time-space, there's nothing too difficult here, evidences are contained in the scriptures.

Slyly, here you are speaking and claiming as if I was the one who did not back up my arguments.
 
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The ultimate key to answering the question which began this conversation, if Muslims and Christians worship the same God is to determine if the claim a Muslim makes that God is the Holy One is compatible with the claim a Christian makes that God is the Holy Trinity. If they are incompatible, then we worship different gods. The only way that the answer can be Yes is if, despite our different ways of speaking of the oneness of God, is if ultimately we are affirming the same truth that there is just one God. Muslims may not follow Christian reasoning, or they may follow and not agree with it. But, in the end, at least one prominent Muslim cleric hears what Christians are saying, and when asked if we worship the same God, without equivocation says, "Yes!"


From the text alone, it does not appear that the sheiks affirm that muslims and christians worship the same God.
the editing of the conversation was done slyly (I dont expect oterwise from a missionary) to make it appear as if the sheikh agreed the notion that muslims and christians worship the same God.


We only worship Allah, and by what I know of trinity, that means The Father.
So , sorry to burst your bubble, but we dont worship the same God.
 
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What is flawed and inconsistent is you logic.
You assume that an atemporal omnitemporal omnipotent being cannot cause an effect at a certain point of time inside the temporal while still being outside it.
If He is ever inside and bound by the temporal, he would not be atemporal, isnt he?
That is, unless you don't believe that he is atemporal,omnipotent and omnitemporal, which I completely understand because as a christian you are bound by the believe that he is neither, otherwise how can you ever reconcile the fact about God being on earth and doing mundane human things such as washing himself after doing his business. By your own logic, God has to be inside the creation all the time because, unless you believe otherwise, the universe is always sustained by him, meaning he is dispensing affairs at all times.
omnitemporal simply means that god is within every point of time. it literally means that he is inside his creation. i would like for you to answer how you can use a concept that means "god is within his creation" and then try to claim that god does not enter his creation. sticking the word "atemporal" before the concept doesn't help your position one bit. clearly you don't understand what either omnitemporal or atemporal mean. there is no such thing as "atemporal omnitemporal" etc. it is either that a being is atemporal or omnitemporal---never the two of them together because they are opposed to one another. you have consistently used words that you do not know the meaning of. at this point it is more than obvious that you have yet to grasp the content of this discussion.

Define in more detail when you say "enters into creation".
alright it seems that we're getting somewhere here. have you read all my posts? because i do speak of this concept at length. is there any particular section wherein it seems that i haven't particularly explained myself properly? if you quote it then i will be more than happy to try to do so once more. i'd very much like to continue this discussion.
 
omnitemporal simply means that god is within every point of time. it literally means that he is inside his creation.


I meant to replace omnitemporal with atemporal. I'd misunderstood the meaning of omnitemporal.
As Allah created time, so he is outside it and not affected by it.

If He is ever inside and bound by the temporal, he would not be atemporal, isnt he?
My argument still holds, and your logic failed.
 

I meant to replace omnitemporal with atemporal. I'd misunderstood the meaning of omnitemporal.
As Allah created time, so he is outside it and not affected by it.
we are still at square one. can you explain to us how action can at all occur outside of the realm of time? the fact that at some point there was nothing and then allah subsequently acted (i.e. created) shows that he did indeed enter time to do so. when time did not exist allah had done nothing for no action could occur without the realm of time yet once time came into being your holy book attests to many successive actions on the part of allah. can you explain how action can at all occur without the realm of time? how can he at all be in conversation with iblis concerning man, how can he send gabriel with revelations for muhammad, etc. how can action at all take place without the realm of time when action by its very definition presupposes time?

( a ) If He is ever inside and bound by the temporal, he would not be atemporal, isnt he?
( b ) My argument still holds, and your logic failed.
( a ) it would seem that here we're about to veer off slightly into a different discussion but since you seem to be so sure of yourself on this matter, i have no problem. whether god is atemporal, casually temporal, or really temporal does not provide me with any difficulties for there are theologians on all sides of the issue yet this is different than the question i was asking you. i asked you how allah could take on dimensions and as such enter into his creation (space). i asked you how he could act without entering the realm of time when action by its very definition involves time. do you understand why it is said that god created time when he created everything else in existence? it is because that was the first moment of action that he took and the very fact that he acted brought about the reality and the beginning of time. prior to this there was no action on the part of god. even the statement that god created time when he created everything else admits that action can't exist outside the realm of time. in light of this, how then do you claim that god does not enter time when he acts seeing as there are moments before, during and after these acts?

it's all nice that you say that god is atemporal but you still have not answered the argument, you merely state your opinion. please begin to engage my argument. furthermore you seem to claim atemporality without understanding it so can you please justify this opinion of yours and how an atemporal god can know tensed facts?

( b ) it's wonderful that you seem to think so but please get to proving this.

as far as what happened in the trinity thread is concerned, it is a good thing that the thread is still there so that anyone with doubts may view it and see what really transpired.
 
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Now, I do believe we were built to know God, even to live in relationship with God. But I don't think we were built to understand God. That is quite a different thing. Rather, God makes himself known to us in small bite-sized bits of revelation: the beauty of creation, our innate longing for something outside ourselves, the inspiration given to prophets. I submit that relative to God himself even the most sublime scripture is bite-sized. And further, because of our limitations in understanding, we translate even that into ways of thinking that harmonize with our pre-existing way of thinking and expressing things.
Yes, I agree that what has been revealed of Allah's (swt) nature has been in 'small bite-sized bits of revelation'. From my perspective the revelation of Allah's (swt) attributes in the Quran are 100% compatible with each other and are not self-contradictory. However, to say that the Father is fully God and that Jesus is fully the same God yet fully human are contradictory statements Father=God=Jesus and Jesus=God=human. It is completely and irrefutably illogical to say that Jesus praying to the Father is an illustration of the Unity of God.
For example, we read in both our sacred scriptures of God speaking of Allah seeing. And, because you and I do these things via the mechanisms of eyes and ears we project these constructs onto God as well. And though our different scriptures themselves may each speak of the hand of God, I believe that we humans would be wiser to understand such statements to be constructed so that we might relate to the action of the passage than to be informative as to God's form, and even less to convey the idea of a physical body.
I don't deny the attributes of Allah (swt) that have been revealed in the Quran, nor do I try to explain away as 'allegorical' that which I can't comprehend. The nature of Allah's (swt) hands, His speech or His seeing is known only to Him.
Indeed, one of my basic understandings with regard to God that I believe is conveyed in the Christian scriptures (and I had thought was similarly held to be true in Islam, though you've said previously that I was wrong on this point) is that God is not bound by space or time in any way. I don't just mean that he has it within himself to miraculously transport himself from one place or point of time to another, but that he doesn't need to, for he exists outside of time and space and does not inhabit it. Indeed, I personally like the suggest that they reside within him.
Perhaps, we have a misunderstanding because I agree with what is in bold and I understand that you are saying I disagree????
And, I know however close our beliefs may (or perhaps may not) be up to that point, it is at this point they most definitely diverge. For, with respect to the original focus of this thread, we do claim that Jesus was God incarante, and we claim that to say this is not to say that the above was no longer true, but that it remained true even as God placed himself within his creation. I understand it does not make sense to you. I understand that the more I describe it the less it seems even plausible or consistent with the nature of God as you now know him. But this is the Christian understanding of what it means to say, as our scriptures do indeed affirm, that God became flesh and dwelled among us, even that God was pleased to have all his fulness dwell in the Christ. However, even as you vehemently disagree with what we say is true with regard to the nature of Jesus, I would hope that you might be able to see why it is that we assert that even as we worship Jesus, that we are not worship someone who is a partner of God, but of none other than God himself. Such a statement is shirk to you, but it is Gospel to us.
However, I don't think that you understand that I see the Father and Jesus as being distinct and separate beings. I see that the 'Father' is the term that the NT uses to refer to the Divine Being that Jesus (as) prayed to and worshiped as exemplified by the Lord's Prayer and at Gethsemane. I equate the Being that Jesus (as) prayed to as being one and the same as Allah (swt) without implying any 'fatherhood' to Him. If the 'Father' is Allah (swt) and Jesus is distinct from the Father, then Jesus (as) is distinct and separate from Allah (swt). Since Jesus (as) is distinct from Allah (swt), to worship him as a god is indeed shirk from the perspective of any Muslim.

My main issue with the Trinity is not that it is beneath the dignity of Allah (swt) to do the things that humans do (even though it certainly is not befitting of His majesty), but rather my primary issue is in not being able to see how distinct and separate beings or persons can be an illustration of the Unity of God.

Quoting from an earlier post:
"I see that the Christian belief about God can be equated to saying that someone can be in Egypt and at the same time in New York, or that someone can be 100% African and 100% Caucasian, or 100% female and 100% male. I believe that God is One and that in and of itself precludes Him from being divisible into different persons with the first person saying to the second, "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased", or the second praying in Gethsemane to the first, "not my will, but yours be done", or the first sending the third in the name of the second (John 14:26). My mind can't comprehend how these examples illustrate Unity. I suspect that your mind can't either and that you accept it on faith with your saying the 3 are one makes it so."

With your knowledge of the Bible and of Christianity, surely you can explain how Christian theology is monotheistic and without shirk.
 
I don't know if it's been said or not, but I think the main "nature" of Jesus' birth is by the will of God Himself.

Regardless if it was parthogenesis, creation of a sperm or a whole embryo...whatever the particular methedology was...the human Jesus emergene into human history was DIRECTLY by the will of God as faithfully accepted by Mary. The Will of God antedated Mary's acceptance of God's Will...making the two (the Will of God and human faithful reception and acceptance of that Will) undeniably linked in the Jesus' human conception and birth.

Now, if it's genuinely believed that God HIMSELF brought Jesus into being (though synergistically through bestowing "Grace" upon the faithful, obedient, humble Mary), then it seems doubtless that anyone can be called the "Father" of Jesus but God Himself.

Right?

Does this make sense?
 
I mean, really think about it, y'all. If the Will, Power, and Love of Allah is the ultimate ground for Jesus' emergence into human history through Mary as his mother...not any type of human machination or intentionality...

what else COULD Allah be but the "begetter" of Mary's baby by having Grace upon Mary, who was WILLING to be the mother of Allah's "word."

Allah being Jesus' "Father"...while Mary was his Mother.

Doesn't this just make sense? Maybe I'm just crazy here...
 
MustafaMc:
However, I don't think that you understand that I see the Father and Jesus as being distinct and separate beings. I see that the 'Father' is the term that the NT uses to refer to the Divine Being that Jesus (as) prayed to and worshiped as exemplified by the Lord's Prayer and at Gethsemane. I equate the Being that Jesus (as) prayed to as being one and the same as Allah (swt) without implying any 'fatherhood' to Him. If the 'Father' is Allah (swt) and Jesus is distinct from the Father, then Jesus (as) is distinct and separate from Allah (swt). Since Jesus (as) is distinct from Allah (swt), to worship him as a god is indeed shirk from the perspective of any Muslim.

YieldedOne:
To be sure the Father and Jesus are distinct and separate beings. The Father is Unbegotten and Jesus is the "begotten" of God...a "word" spoken by God. And it seems patently obvious, biblically speaking, that Jesus felt himself distinct from God his Father.

The main disagreement, as I see it, is this:
Both Christians and Muslims believe that Jesus's human emergence is primarily by the Will, Power, and Love of God. Without Allah's previous intentionality, Jesus simply wouldn't have been who he was as Mary's Baby with no earthly father. Jesus was "begotten" of God...a "word" spoken by God who reveals and reflects God.
Muslims don't believe the Allah-spoken "word" that is the "begetting" of Jesus is an ETERNAL word. Christians do believe that.

I think that's what it really comes down to, theologically speaking.
 
If there can be reason to believe that Jesus/Isa is an eternal "word" of Allah that was temporally manifesting in and through human history by the will and gracious activity of Allah...

then what are the implications of how one sees the PERSON of Jesus, Allah's "word."
 
I mean, really think about it, y'all. If the Will, Power, and Love of Allah is the ultimate ground for Jesus' emergence into human history through Mary as his mother...not any type of human machination or intentionality...

what else COULD Allah be but the "begetter" of Mary's baby by having Grace upon Mary, who was WILLING to be the mother of Allah's "word."

Allah being Jesus' "Father"...while Mary was his Mother.

Doesn't this just make sense? Maybe I'm just crazy here...

Perhaps it does make sense to you, but the way you describe this here is NOT what I would hold as the way in which God brought about the conception of Jesus. It sounds too much like procreation, and theology of the incarnation does not reset on (in fact I believe is contrary to) the idea that God is producing a biological offspring. Here we once again have a problem with language. Hebrew, Greek, and Aramaic terms when translated into todays English vernacular often have different connotations for today's reader than they would have for the original writers and audience. For, while to our way of thinking to say someone is another's son is to also say that they are the other's offspring, that is not what was being said when the biblical writers spoke of Jesus as the "Son of God". Unless one can leave behind these ideas of procreation and biology, the message of the Bible with regard to the nature of Jesus' birth and his relationship with the Father within the Godhead will never be understood.

Plainly put, Allah was NOT Jesus father in the same way that Mary was his mother. It is the phrase '"n the same way" that must be emphasized. For while it is true to say Jesus is the son of God. And while it is true to say Jesus is the son of Mary. He was so in different ways. Let us also remember that he was the son of Joseph as well, and this too in a different way than either of the other meanings we have just used, and none of those ways of speaking of Jesus' sonship being the same as when saying that I am the son of my father or mother.

Muslims don't believe the Allah-spoken "word" that is the "begetting" of Jesus is an ETERNAL word. Christians do believe that.

I think that's what it really comes down to, theologically speaking.

This relates to the above. Why Jesus is the Son of God isn't not rooted in his humanity, but his divinity. It is because Jesus is the incarnation of the Word who isn't just begotten as the ETERNAL word, but he is being ETERNALLY BEGOTTEN of the Father.

In other words, it is within the very nature of God himself there is an eternal Father and an eternally begotten Son, and an eternally existing Spirit. In the course of time this already begotten Son would incarnate himself (by means of creating an embryo in which he would dwell and grow and be born) as the person we know as Jesus. In a sense then, Jesus didn't exist into the creation of the embryo which was placed in Mary's womb, but the Son has existed for all of eternity for the very nature of God is that he as has always existed in community within himself.
 
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what else COULD Allah be but the "begetter" of Mary's baby by having Grace upon Mary, who was WILLING to be the mother of Allah's "word."


If that's your definition, then Allah is also the "begetter" of Adam (p)


Allah being Jesus' "Father"...while Mary was his Mother.


That means you also believe that Allah is the "father" of Adam (p)


Doesn't this just make sense? Maybe I'm just crazy here...


you are making as much sense as the next christian.
 
we are still at square one. can you explain to us how action can at all occur outside of the realm of time?


I cannot claim how action occur outside the realm of time. But muslims agree, as per Qur'an and ahadeeth, that Allah is outside creation.
You, however claim that it is not possible, so you must show us why is it not possible while the definition of God is clear that He could cause anything at anytime without having affected by time.

I understand that you feel the need to force muslims to stoop down to your level of belief where God is not atemporal, not omniscient (God who didnt know what was going to happen), and not omnipotent (God who was so weak, overcome by two oafish romans and hung on the cross).
I feel pity that you have such concept of God.

Your subsequent drivel is mere repetetions that shows you lack logical capacity.

Now, since you seemed to know so much about what happen inside and outside of creation, answer this questions:

1. How can god be dead and alive at the same time?
You are talking big about "logic", now prove to me logically
was the lesser god truly dead?
2. you havent answered my question before: Why do christians think that God needed to scuckle breast, peed, cried, pooped, washed after himself?
was a human or god?
if he was a human, how can he be god?

it's not logical!

oh, I am having fun here.

and if god really died, who ran the universe?
and if he did not really die, why is it called sacrifice?

the mind boggles.
 
Naidamar:
If that's your definition, then Allah is also the "begetter" of Adam.

Sure, Allah did "beget" Adam by his direct will. Again, the question is simply: Is any dimension of Jesus' personal being ETERNALLY "begotten" by Allah.
 
Graceseeker:
Why Jesus is the Son of God isn't not rooted in his humanity, but his divinity. It is because Jesus is the incarnation of the Word who isn't just begotten as the ETERNAL word, but he is being ETERNALLY BEGOTTEN of the Father. In other words, it is within the very nature of God himself there is an eternal Father and an eternally begotten Son, and an eternally existing Spirit. In the course of time this already begotten Son would incarnate himself (by means of creating an embryo in which he would dwell and grow and be born) as the person we know as Jesus. In a sense then, Jesus didn't exist into the creation of the embryo which was placed in Mary's womb, but the Son has existed for all of eternity for the very nature of God is that he as has always existed in community within himself.

I don't see myself disagreeing with you. I'm just thinking that Muslims and Christians essentially AGREE about the nature of Jesus' birth being based ultimately on God's creative Power and Will.
 
naidamar:
But muslims agree, as per Qur'an and ahadeeth, that Allah is outside creation.

Christians agree that Allah is "outside" of Creation, meaning that there is an infinite difference and distinction between the Uncreated and the Created. Allah is totally transcendent from Creation. At the same time, Christians believe that God Himself personally sustains all creation immanently. It's not that Creation IS God (that would be pantheism). More that there is a continuous relationship of sustanance of the Created by Allah such that Allah's personal activity is the direct "ground of being" for the Created.

In short, God is "outside" Creation, but also the deepest "inside" of any aspect of Creation is filled with Divine Presence.
 
Sure, Allah did "beget" Adam by his direct will. Again, the question is simply: Is any dimension of Jesus' personal being ETERNALLY "begotten" by Allah.


simple answer: no.

unless you also want to consider that any dimension of Adam's personal being ETERNALLY "begotten" by Allah.
 
Yes, I agree that what has been revealed of Allah's (swt) nature has been in 'small bite-sized bits of revelation'. From my perspective the revelation of Allah's (swt) attributes in the Quran are 100% compatible with each other and are not self-contradictory.
OK. I affirm that this is your persepctive.
However, to say that the Father is fully God and that Jesus is fully the same God yet fully human are contradictory statements Father=God=Jesus and Jesus=God=human.
I cannot affirm that this even represents what I am saying from my perspective.
It is completely and irrefutably illogical to say that Jesus praying to the Father is an illustration of the Unity of God.
I quite agree. Jesus praying to the Father is NOT an illustration of the Unity of God. It is an illustration of the distinctions between the persons within the greater and larger unity of God.

Christianity never argues that there are no distinctions between the person of the Son and the Father and the Spirit. Indeed, if there were no distinctions, I doubt that you would think that we were ascribing partners to God. The problem is that you think of God as only referring to the Father. And is that when speaking of the Father separate from the Son and the Spirit we are no more fully speaking of God than when speaking of the Son separate from the Father and the Spirit. If you think speaking of the Son is to ascribe partners to God, then understand that when we Christians speak of the Father we would be doing the same. One does not have an eternal Father without an eternal Son. If, to your understnading, the Son cannot be Allah, please don't equate the Father with Allah then either. For what you mean by Allah is what we mean not by the Father, but by God who is all three in one. (I will try to cover this more at the end or perhaps with a follow-up post.)
I don't deny the attributes of Allah (swt) that have been revealed in the Quran, nor do I try to explain away as 'allegorical' that which I can't comprehend. The nature of Allah's (swt) hands, His speech or His seeing is known only to Him.
I wasn't trying to "explain away" anything as allegorical. I was simply explaining that I understand the intent in the writing itself was to use allegory in order to better convey understanding to the original audience.
Perhaps, we have a misunderstanding because I agree with what is in bold and I understand that you are saying I disagree????
I shall have to go back to find what it was that led me to think you were saying this. But perhaps I don't need to. If I understand you correctly now we are in agreement: "God is not bound by space or time in any way." So, God indeed can be omnipresent (i.e., in every place and in every time all at the same time)?
However, I don't think that you understand that I see the Father and Jesus as being distinct and separate beings.
Actually I do understand that this is how you see them. And I too see them as distinct persons, but I do not see them as separate beings. And I understand that for you those two statements reek of illogic. Yet for me they are simply revealed truth.
I see that the 'Father' is the term that the NT uses to refer to the Divine Being that Jesus (as) prayed to and worshiped as exemplified by the Lord's Prayer and at Gethsemane. I equate the Being that Jesus (as) prayed to as being one and the same as Allah (swt) without implying any 'fatherhood' to Him. If the 'Father' is Allah (swt) and Jesus is distinct from the Father, then Jesus (as) is distinct and separate from Allah (swt). Since Jesus (as) is distinct from Allah (swt), to worship him as a god is indeed shirk from the perspective of any Muslim.
If in the first sentence you were to substitute the term "person" for "being", I would agree with you. However, as I stated above, one should not equate Allah with the Father alone separate from the Son and the Spirit, for to do so divides God into multiple beings which we Christians would never do. And we would not do so, specifically because we do indeed believe that there is just one God -- a single divine being who in his nature exists in community within himself as three distinct persons, but who is nevertheless wholly one being.
My main issue with the Trinity is not that it is beneath the dignity of Allah (swt) to do the things that humans do (even though it certainly is not befitting of His majesty), but rather my primary issue is in not being able to see how distinct and separate beings or persons can be an illustration of the Unity of God.
Yes, your problem with this issue is rather obvious. Even the way you misrepresent what it is makes it clear that you have a problem with it. (And I don't mean that you do so with malice or even intent, but you just don't speak of the Trinity meaning by it what we mean by it.)
Quoting from an earlier post:
"I see that the Christian belief about God can be equated to saying that someone can be in Egypt and at the same time in New York, or that someone can be 100% African and 100% Caucasian, or 100% female and 100% male. I believe that God is One and that in and of itself precludes Him from being divisible into different persons with the first person saying to the second, "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased", or the second praying in Gethsemane to the first, "not my will, but yours be done", or the first sending the third in the name of the second (John 14:26). My mind can't comprehend how these examples illustrate Unity. I suspect that your mind can't either and that you accept it on faith with your saying the 3 are one makes it so."
Well, the omnipresence of God, not the Trinity, would be the reason for speaking of God as being in Egypt and New York and for that matter Mississippi all at the same time. And when God is present, then of course it is all of him that is present. To say that God cannot do this is to say that God is limited with regard to space and time. And I don't believe God to be so bound. And according to what you said above you don't either. Or do you? I'm still unclear.

I don't know how to your comment about God being 100% of different races or different genders at the same time. I don't recall anyone every saying any such thing. I would argue that God has neither race nor gender. That even the use of the personal pronoun "he" is a convention and not meant to be description of the gender of one who in his image creates us both male and female. That doesn't sound like one to whom a specific gender should be ascribed.

Again, the passages you reference indeed do point to a distinction between the persons of the Father and of the Son, or between the Son and the Spirit. There are many more besides these that you have named. We Christian don't deny, rather we affirm that there are distinctions between the persons of the Trinity. But we would also point out that there are passages that point to oneness as well. And whether we are comfortable doing it or not might be questions, but most certainly we do hold these passages in tension affirming both to be revealed truth. It is out of that affirmation that the doctrine which you know as an articulation of the Trinity developed.

You say that I accept this as a statement of faith. Well, of course it is. It is an affirmation of what I believe to be the revealed truth. And it then gives expression to those beliefs as a synthesis of our best understanding of the totallit of all those passages.

Your expression of the oneness of Allah is similary not something that you arrived at by logic, but by declaring your faith in the truth as you best understand it revealed. Now, having arrived at that belief, I am sure that is seems logical to you. But what I observe of human nature is that we arrive at our beliefs first by faith, and then find those beliefs to be logical, not the other way around. Though surely there is someone who with me having now made such a statement will tell their personal story and prove me wrong. C'est le vie!
With your knowledge of the Bible and of Christianity, surely you can explain how Christian theology is monotheistic and without shirk.

[/quote]Well, I have written already a great deal on how it is that we Christians see the nature of God. How though we see a distinction between three persons, that we still understand that we are speaking of one divine Being, one singluar essence. I have written in other posts how we Christians begin with the concept that God is one and that there are no other gods. And yet, in the course of time how we came to believe that God had revealed himself in the person of Jesus Christ. Yet, since we affirm that there is just the one God, if Jesus was God revealed in the flesh then it followed that within our understanding of the one God we had to allow for the possibility that this one God existed within himself in community. Holding these two concepts to both be true and yet seeming running contrary to each other, the early church church wrestled with what this revelation meant. And in the end, the present Nicene formulation is what emerged.

Now, I don't expect that such an explanation in the single paragraph I provided above is going to be sufficient to answer all the questions that are raised. I would very much like to try to be more complete if afforded the opportunity. Indeed, I had considered during the time that I was away from the forum earlier this year to devote myself to an intensive study of the Trinity and to bring my own thoughts back to here to share. I don't know if that would be acceptable given the rules of the forum. But if so, I would like to discuss how it is that monotheistic Jews, as the disciples of Jesus all were, should nontheless find it necessary to express their conviction that Jesus was himself God incarnate. I would like to show how the ideas that we eventually find articulated as the doctrine of the Trinity, are actually rooted in the Jewish understanding of God, and how the Christian understanding of the Trinity is as much a statement about the oneness of God as it is about the distinctiveness of the three persons. But such a project thus far has been beyond my time to initiate, and I fear might be beyond the tolerance of this forum to allow posting.
 
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naidamar:
unless you also want to consider that any dimension of Adam's personal being ETERNALLY "begotten" by Allah.

"Lo! the likeness of Jesus with Allah is as the likeness of Adam. He created him of dust, then He said unto him: Be! and he is."
Surah 3:59

The likeness of Adam and Jesus is obvious and just what I've been saying: Both Adam and Jesus are ultimately brought into human existence via Allah's Will and both are emergent from created material (4 elements, etc).

But this says nothing about Adam and Jesus being alike in EVERY respect. Isn't that right?
 

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