truthseeker63's Corner

Re: Can Satan influence people to do wrong or evil things ?

truthseeker63 said:
Can Satan influence people to do wrong or evil things ?
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Yes.

"O mankind, eat from whatever is on earth [that is] lawful and good and do not follow the footsteps of Satan. Indeed, he is to you a clear enemy. He only orders you to evil and immorality and to say about Allah what you do not know." (2:168-169)

"Indeed, those of you who turned back on the day the two armies met, it was Satan who caused them to slip because of some [blame] they had earned. But Allah has already forgiven them. Indeed, Allah is Forgiving and Forbearing." (3:155)

"Have you not seen those who pretend that they believe in that which is revealed to you and that which was revealed before you? They wish to go for judgement (in their disputes) to false deities when they have been ordered to reject them, and Satan wishes to lead them far astray." (4:60)

"Satan promises them and arouses desire in them. But Satan does not promise them except delusion." (4:120)

"Then why, when Our punishment came to them, did they not humble themselves? But their hearts became hardened, and Satan made attractive to them that which they were doing." (6:43)

He (Iblees/Satan)said: "My Lord! Because Thou hast sent me astray, I verily shall adorn the path of error for them in the earth, and shall mislead them every one, except those of them that are Your perfectly devoted slaves." (15:39-40)

(Allah said) "Indeed, My servants - no authority will you have over them, except those who follow you of the deviators." (15:42)
 
Re: Can Satan influence people to do wrong or evil things ?

truthseeker63 said:
Can Satan influence people to do wrong or evil things ? Like could Satan influence Leaders of Nations to harm Muslims or just harm people in general ? I don't mean to make this a political thread but I believe Satan or the Devil influences Western Leaders to do wrong.
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Hi! Yes, Satan does have a powerful influence on us. In fact, a lot of people underestimate him. Not just leaders of nations.... but all people are in danger of being influenced by him. Nobody is safe.
 
In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology like lie detector tests to have a conviction for adultery or must there always be four witnesses ?



Modern Technology:

Shaykh Salih al Munajjid said on IslamQA; According to Islamic sharee'ah, Zinaa [adultery/fornication] can only be proven by clear evidence, namely the testimony of four trustworthy and sound witnesses who saw it actually happen, or by confession of guilt, or by the woman becoming pregnant. It cannot be proven by DNA testing or by use of cameras and videos in place of the things mentioned above. And Allaah knows best.

[see IslamQA #6926]


http://www.idawah.com/refutations/adultery_punishment.html
 
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Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

Just think with youTube and adult TV and the sleazy magazines everyone would be due for a hanging-- figuratively ..
it would be interesting though if this ijtihad is a consensus amongst most of the scholars...
 
Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

If I am not mistaken, some form of dna is actually allowed in Sharia courts anyway (victims of rape, for instance, are to scratch their attacker's skin which can then be used to identify the attacker later on...) Also, in cases (whether it is adultery or otherwise) where there was no witness, but there was cctv, I think it would be a great social and moral injustice to disallow such evidence.

Similarly, if the witness testimonies all agree on one thing but the footage from the cctv/dna says otherwise, it would surely be more just to err on the side of caution and not administer a punishment to the accused because now there is doubt. If it then turns out those witnesses have conspired and frame an innocent person, which is a crime in Islam, cctv footage may be the only way of proving this.

I'm not sure what the overall consensus is, but from my understanding of Sharia (which is justice and NOT punishment) modern technology should be allowed - as supporting evidence at least.
 
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Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

Commit adultery is different than rape. In commit adultery both party done it without coercion, while in rape, one forced another.

"And those who accuse chaste women and then do not produce four witnesses - lash them with eighty lashes and do not accept from them testimony ever after. And those are the defiantly disobedient"
(An-Nur : 4. Sahih International)

The ayah above is about accusation by people to chaste women, not about rape. Need four witnesses if someone wants to accuse a chaste woman commit adultery. However, there is no any ayah or hadith that obligate rape victim to present four witnesses if she wants to sue the rapist to sharia court, because commit adultery is different than rape. In one case, caliph Umar Ibn Khattab (ra) punished a slave from Khoms who raped a slave woman, although there were no four witnesses in this case.

Can modern technologies such as camera or DNA testing be used in sharia court for rape cases ?. Many ulama in this modern day have made ijtihad and issued fatawa, modern technologies can be used for rape cases.
 
Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

Thats view of sheikh salih al munajjid, I'm sure other sheikhs would hold an opposite view
 
In Islam are the mentally disabled punished for their sins ?

In Islam are the mentally disabled punished for their sins ? I don't get why they would since they have a mind of a children and can't take care of themselves ?


Why Allaah creates mentally disabled people​

Why has Allah created mentally Disabled people

http://islamqa.com/en/ref/7951
 
Re: In Islam are the mentally disabled punished for their sins ?

The Messenger of Allah (صلي الله عليه وسلم) said: “The Pen is lifted from three (i.e., their deeds are not recorded):
  1. a child until he reaches puberty;
  2. an insane man until he comes to his senses;
  3. one who is asleep until he wakes up.”
[Recorded in Abu Dawud #4403, and Ibn Majah #2041]

http://www.ilmfruits.com/the-pen-is-lifted-from-three
 
Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

it ultimately comes down to honesty, as even video can be manipulated frame by frame:


.....imagine how many murder sentences can be handed out there

a woman guilty of adultery or fornication can claim rape with the use of dna.

and lie detectors can easily be cheated by people who know how they work,
you just think you're lying when answering the true test questions, and think you're telling the truth when answering the false test questions - and muddle the hell out of it by having conflicting thoughts during all answers

honest witnesses are important
 
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Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

It is quite logical that Shaikh Salih Al-Munajjid gave that answer. We have examples from the time of the Prophet to prove it. There were 2 people back then who had confessed their zina and Prophet Muhammad (SallAllahuAlayhiWaSallam) tried quite hard to avoid their punishment. He didn't easily give into their demands of carrying out the punishment on both of them. One of them was popularly known as "the Ghamidi woman" and the other was Ma'iz. The two hadn't committed zina with each other. They had come to the prophet on separate occasions and both the times, the Prophet tried to turn them away and gave them plenty of chance to repent on their own without executing them.

So, you see the Prophet encouraged repentance more than the whip.

It is also a matter of choice. I mean, though the two stood witness against their own selves yet the Prophet implemented the requital only after giving them much chance of repentance. In a way, they were only punished because they insisted for it as they were not able to carry the burden of that heinous sin on their shoulders. So, if someone has committed zina and wants to hide it and repent truthfully then what right do we have putting that person on a lie detector.

If the person wants to hide it but there are four witnesses against him/her then this also becomes a case of public obscenity. This situation can only be solved with the trial.

In case of rape, this is robbery of human rights. The woman's pregnancy is enough as an evidence against the convict.
 
Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

but what if she claimed rape after she realised she was pregnant?
it's a lot more complicated than that.
 
Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

abz2000 said:
but what if she claimed rape after she realised she was pregnant?
it's a lot more complicated than that.
Click to expand...

She can still press charges. She might have considered forgiving the rapist but as pregnancy is a huge event in every woman's life then it must have triggered her to raise her voice.
 
Re: In a sharia court is it accepted to use modern technology ?

aadil77 said:
Thats view of sheikh salih al munajjid, I'm sure other sheikhs would hold an opposite view
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Shaykh Salih Al Munajid was not talking about rape, but about zina. I don't see anything wrong with his fatwa.
 
Is Patriotism allowed in Islam ?

Is Patriotism allowed in Islam ? Can a Muslim for example who is Egyptian from Egypt be proud or have Patriotism for being Egyptian ? Im not talking about Nationalism Im just talking about can Muslims be Patriots to their Nation States ? Can Muslims be loyal to the Islamic State which is the Caliphate ?


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Egyptian_nationalism
 
Re: Why did Pakistan separate from India in 1947 ?

^ I don't know much but I think it was because Hindu's/Sikhs were making life hard for the Indian Muslims' that's why they decided to have their own Islamic state where they could practice their religion freely, but as time passed they deviated from their original goal of creating an Islamic state, as in some parts of Pakistan, it doesn't feel like an Islamic state at all. Secularism is the rule there, and men who like to legislate contrary to what Allah has legislated are in government. But this is the case for the majority of Muslim populated countries, the population is being ruled and enslaved by laws of men. Not the laws of their creator.
 
Re: Why did Pakistan separate from India in 1947 ?

Islam was spreading like wildfire in india and the colonialists decided to stir up turmoil and division, so they sparked conflicts and split up the nation and made muslims out to be "the enemy on the other side of the border".
the muslims didn't have much choice due to the conflict.
but before that - all indians muslim and hindu - were part of the parliament and there was a khilafat movement with widespread mass appeal among muslims and non-muslims of india.
this movement also had the support of gandhi
The Khilafat movement (1919–1924) was a pan-Islamic, political campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the British governmentand to protect the Ottoman Empire during the aftermath of World War I.
In India, although mainly a Muslim religious movement, the movement became a part of the wider Indian independence movement. The movement was a topic in Conference of London (February 1920).

 The support of the Khilafatists helped Gandhi and the Congress ensure Hindu-Muslim unity during the struggle.
Gandhi described his feelings towards Mohammad Ali as "love at first sight" to underscore his feelings of solidarity.
Khilafat leaders such as Dr. Ansari, Maulana Azad and Hakim Ajmal Khan also grew personally close to Gandhi.
These leaders founded the Jamia Millia Islamia in 1920 to promote independent education and social rejuvenation for Muslims.

Pakistan was made an "independent" country based on border lines created by the British during the end of their rule of India.
Pakistan became an "independent" country in 1947.

also research the term "quarantine"
 
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Re: Why did Pakistan separate from India in 1947 ?

once they had decided india was under sufficient control - they claimed to "grant them independence",
but that was a farce aswell.
because it was independence from the taxpayers who had funded the wars - but not from their personal interests.

motilal nehru was a famous freemason, famous to the freemasons that is - but not to the general public:
http://www.masonindia.org/MInfo_59.htm


Jawaharlal Nehru often referred to with the epithet of Panditji, was the first prime minister of independent India (1947–64),
who established parliamentary government and became noted for his “neutralist” policies in foreign affairs.
The son of moderate nationalist leader and Congressman Motilal Nehru
Jawaharlal nehru's daughter Indira Priyadarshini Gandhi served as prime minister of India for three consecutive terms (1966–77).

talk about keeping it in the family
800pxNehru_family-1.jpg


The family of Motilal Nehru, who is seated in the centre. Standing (L to R)
Jawaharlal Nehru (Panditji), Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit, Krishna Hutheesingh, Indira Gandhi and Ranjit Pandit; Seated: Swaroop Rani, Motilal Nehru and Kamala Nehru (circa 1927)

look at the antics they stage:

once during an Emergency, Mrs. Indira Gandhi decided to ban freemasonry.
But, later, "when she knew their ideal"s, she was so impressed and went on saying ‘if all Indians were like them, the members of the Freemasonry, there would be peace all around.

she didn't know her grandfather? or was he one of those obscure little known people who's past she didn't know much about?...........see above photo
freemasonry was taken to india by the colonialists who put the "honourable east india company" (the world's biggest opium dealer) as heads and grandmasters.
When did Freemasonry come to India?
A). The honor of receiving Freemasonry in India goes to Calcutta. In 1730 officers of the East Indian Company held their meetings in Fort William, Calcutta. The number given to the Lodge was 72.

http://www.masonindia.org/index10.html


also research : opium wars

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Opium_Wars

it's been a rigged game from a long while back:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=V9ei6OuruGc
 
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