Abu Zakariya
Elite Member
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mansio
I never claimed that I have knowledge in the arabic language.
However, my point was that someone that doesn't have knowledge of the arabic language shouldn't analyze an arabic scripture. You clearly don't agree, since you went ahead and did it just now, commenting on the verses in sura at-Taariq.
I didn't analyze the verses, rather I went to the experts on arabic as well as Koranic exegesis to get clarity instead of trying to analyze it by myself despite being ignorant of arabic. This can't be said for some other LI-members.
Great response there! Top notch refutation. Where did you learn to produce such in-depth analyzing arguments?
This isn't a far-fetched explanation made by muslim scholars as you try to make it seem, rather, this is how the verse is understood in arabic.
Why do that when it is already understood to mean that?
Again, tar'aib doesn't have to refer to the ribs. It is an ambigous term that could refer to any female body part.
Okay.
Could you please analyze the words in the verses and explain what they mean so that we can get clarity?
I never claimed that I have knowledge in the arabic language.
However, my point was that someone that doesn't have knowledge of the arabic language shouldn't analyze an arabic scripture. You clearly don't agree, since you went ahead and did it just now, commenting on the verses in sura at-Taariq.
I didn't analyze the verses, rather I went to the experts on arabic as well as Koranic exegesis to get clarity instead of trying to analyze it by myself despite being ignorant of arabic. This can't be said for some other LI-members.
Wrong. I responded to that, but not according to what you expected.
"What a ridiculous explanation" was my response.
Great response there! Top notch refutation. Where did you learn to produce such in-depth analyzing arguments?
How is it possible to imagine for one second that the "sulb" and the "tara'ib" belong to TWO different persons ! Muslim scholars must really have been embarrassed by that sentence to find such a way out.
This isn't a far-fetched explanation made by muslim scholars as you try to make it seem, rather, this is how the verse is understood in arabic.
If that were true, God could have written "issueing from between man's loins and woman's ribs".
Why do that when it is already understood to mean that?
Even written like that the sentence would not make sense because of the words "from between". Semen would come from a place situated somewhere between the loins of a man and the ribs of a woman. How is that possible ? Would it float in mid air between the two persons ?
Again, tar'aib doesn't have to refer to the ribs. It is an ambigous term that could refer to any female body part.
The "tarâ'ib" (plural of tarîbat) are the chest, or the area between the breasts and the shoulder blades, or the ribs, or the breasts, or the area from the lower neck to the chin. That is how all translators understood it.
It may be that one sense of tarâ'ib is abdomen of a woman. The sentence then could have made some beginning of sense if it were written "issueing from the loins and woman's tarâ'ib" without "bayni".
Okay.
Could you please analyze the words in the verses and explain what they mean so that we can get clarity?
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