Jesus is the Word of God
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imo,
all abrahamic faiths are the word of god.
they may differ in wording and language but that is a reflection of the people they were sent to and the times at which they were sent.
the quran is the final word of god, complete and unchanged.
it covers everything you need to know.
as well as mentioning the scriptures that went before it.
we believe that jesus pbuh was a prophet in a long line of prophets.. who were all the word of god.. or the action of god.
there individual importance is of the utmost.
but as time moves forward and languages and people change, it is very hard to hold onto something that most want to change.
its just conjecture on my part but whatever.
all abrahamic faiths are the word of god.
they may differ in wording and language but that is a reflection of the people they were sent to and the times at which they were sent.
the quran is the final word of god, complete and unchanged.
it covers everything you need to know.
as well as mentioning the scriptures that went before it.
we believe that jesus pbuh was a prophet in a long line of prophets.. who were all the word of god.. or the action of god.
there individual importance is of the utmost.
but as time moves forward and languages and people change, it is very hard to hold onto something that most want to change.
its just conjecture on my part but whatever.
Redeemed
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Thank you
I would like you to like at this verses that indicates that Jesus is more than just a messenger; He is the word of God (Allah). The recitation was suppose to confirm the Scripture that came before. and it does this very signifincant thing - Jesus is (BE) the word of God Look at Quran 4: 171: Sahih International
O People of the Scripture, do not commit excess in your religion or say about Allah except the truth. The Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary, was but a messenger of Allah and His word which He directed to Mary and a soul [created at a command] from Him. So believe in Allah and His messengers. And do not say, "Three"; desist - it is better for you. Indeed, Allah is but one God. Exalted is He above having a son. To Him belongs whatever is in the heavens and whatever is on the earth. And sufficient is Allah as Disposer of affairs. Jesus is called the word of God in John 1: 1
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What exactly are you trying to prove to yourself?
Words of God = The words that are inspired unto the Prophets via revelation
Word of God = Words of God recorded, as revelation, in text, ie: Torah, Psalms, Gospel, Quran.
All the prophets (peace be upon them all) had the "Word of God", because they were inspired by God. Jesus Christ (peace be upon him), wasn't the only one, bro Redeemed.
Here is something VERY interesting regarding John 1:1
First brethren, remember we must make our interpretations conform to the entire word of GOD. We cannot take a couple of verses and make the rest of GOD’S word conform to these few verses.
We also need to look at how the verses were translated. Often, the verses have various form of translating, even John 1:1. Some will say that in the book of John, Jesus is called GOD.
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Yes, it is translated the Word was GOD, but the same Greek word (theos) can be translated in many ways, so the verse John 1:1 could have been translated…
The greek word theh’-os can be translated in many ways and is used in all of these forms. yeov theos theh’-os — of uncertain affinity; a deity ; n m
1) a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities
2) spoken of the only and true God
2a) refers to the things of God
2b) his counsels, interests, things due to him
3) whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
3a) God’s representative or viceregent
3a1) of magistrates and judges
John 1:1– …, and the Word was a god (using #1 definition).
John 1:1 – …, and the Word was like GOD (using #1 or 2 definition).
This translations is very like — Ephesians 4:24 and to put on the new self, created to be like God in true righteousness and holiness — Where the same Greek word is translated like God. that would make the verse conform to the 100 verses which say that JESUS is the servant of God, God’s first creation and say the Father is the GOD of Jesus.Or we could translate the Greek word as…
John 1:1 – … , and the Word was GOD’S Christ (representative of GOD – according to #3 definition). Or even this form would be true translation of the Greek word…
John 1:1 – … , and the Word was GOD’S creation (using #2a definition).
We have to translate the verse to make them conform to the entire word of GOD, not conform the entire word of GOD to the way someone chose to translate a few verses. Any of these translations would keep the meaning of the multitude of verses that show that Jesus is GOD’S holy servant and GOD’S creation.In this verse (John 1:1), the same word (theh’- os) could be translated “like GOD”. Understand that we have to make all of GOD’S word unified. Taking a few verses and trying to negate 100 or more verses is not right, is not correct, is not true.
Ephesians 4:24 and to put on the new self, created to be like God in true righteousness and holiness.
The same word theos exists in this verse twice, look at how it was translated.
2 Corinthians 4:4 The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.
Here god is the same word theh’- os which was used in John 1:1 translated as GOD. Also note that at the end of this verse it says that JESUS is the image of GOD – it does not say that JESUS is GOD. An image is not the same as the real thing. Now look at this verse…
Again — Philippians 3:19 Whose end is destruction, whose God is their belly, and whose glory is in their shame, who mind earthly things.)
The god in this verse is not referring to GOD ALMIGHTY, yet it is the same Greek word used in John 1:1. But used to signify that some people will forsake the REAL GOD for a substitution that is blasphemous by its very association. Again the same words is used in this verse – is it referring to GOD ALMIGHTY? What about this verse, should we use the formal GOD or the general god?
Acts 7:40 They told Aaron, ‘Make us gods who will go before us. As for this fellow Moses who led us out of Egypt— we don’t know what has happened to him!’
1 Corinthians 8:5 For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth
(as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords” for those who blaspheme against the ONE TRUE GOD (Elah in Aramaic, Allah in Arabic.),.
You have to remember who made the beginning translations – the apostate Catholic Church. The same group that teach people to pray to “Mary, mother of GOD”. They teach blasphemy. They teach people to worship a woman and a man, instead of GOD. They exalt a mere woman to be higher than JESUS and even higher than GOD, Himself. They teach people to pray to saints and worship saints. That is Apostacy by way of Polytheism. All the later translations used all or most of all of the same meanings assigned by the Catholic Church. Can you trust an APOSTATE group to give you the truth?
If JESUS, himself, said “I am return to My GOD and your GOD.”, you have to stop and think - ‘could the translation in John 1:1 be correct? When there is an overwhelming amount of verses (100 or more) that testify that JESUS is the servant, and creation of GOD, how can you use a couple of verses – that could have been translated differently – to negate hundreds of verses?
Look at a few verses that show that JESUS is not GOD. The apostles – who knew JESUS personally write and testify that the Father is the GOD of Jesus. Does GOD have a GOD????
Ephesians 1:17 I keep asking that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the glorious Father, may give you the Spirit of wisdom and revelation, so that you may know him better.
Romans 15:6 so that with one heart and mouth you may glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.
2 Corinthians 11:31 The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, who is to be praised forever, knows that I am not lying. To the GOD of our Lord Jesus Christ.
The Father is the GOD of JESUS. Does GOD have a GOD? Think clearly.
Understand that the word "Father" as used in the translations, is to be understood in the sympathetic sense. As GOD is the father to all creation.
Finally, to continue the verse, John 1:1 we have:
John 1:2 He was with God in the beginning.
Jesus was with GOD, but JESUS is not GOD. remember also that it says that JESUS was with GOD two times, in verse one and verse 2. why was it placed two times? To reinforce the fact that JESUS is not GOD, but was with GOD. Meaning, sponsoring the same as GOD had taught him to.
I hope that sheds some light on John 1:1 for you Redeemed.
Scimi
Words of God = The words that are inspired unto the Prophets via revelation
Word of God = Words of God recorded, as revelation, in text, ie: Torah, Psalms, Gospel, Quran.
All the prophets (peace be upon them all) had the "Word of God", because they were inspired by God. Jesus Christ (peace be upon him), wasn't the only one, bro Redeemed.
Here is something VERY interesting regarding John 1:1
First brethren, remember we must make our interpretations conform to the entire word of GOD. We cannot take a couple of verses and make the rest of GOD’S word conform to these few verses.
We also need to look at how the verses were translated. Often, the verses have various form of translating, even John 1:1. Some will say that in the book of John, Jesus is called GOD.
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Yes, it is translated the Word was GOD, but the same Greek word (theos) can be translated in many ways, so the verse John 1:1 could have been translated…
The greek word theh’-os can be translated in many ways and is used in all of these forms. yeov theos theh’-os — of uncertain affinity; a deity ; n m
1) a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities
2) spoken of the only and true God
2a) refers to the things of God
2b) his counsels, interests, things due to him
3) whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
3a) God’s representative or viceregent
3a1) of magistrates and judges
John 1:1– …, and the Word was a god (using #1 definition).
John 1:1 – …, and the Word was like GOD (using #1 or 2 definition).
This translations is very like — Ephesians 4:24 and to put on the new self, created to be like God in true righteousness and holiness — Where the same Greek word is translated like God. that would make the verse conform to the 100 verses which say that JESUS is the servant of God, God’s first creation and say the Father is the GOD of Jesus.Or we could translate the Greek word as…
John 1:1 – … , and the Word was GOD’S Christ (representative of GOD – according to #3 definition). Or even this form would be true translation of the Greek word…
John 1:1 – … , and the Word was GOD’S creation (using #2a definition).
We have to translate the verse to make them conform to the entire word of GOD, not conform the entire word of GOD to the way someone chose to translate a few verses. Any of these translations would keep the meaning of the multitude of verses that show that Jesus is GOD’S holy servant and GOD’S creation.In this verse (John 1:1), the same word (theh’- os) could be translated “like GOD”. Understand that we have to make all of GOD’S word unified. Taking a few verses and trying to negate 100 or more verses is not right, is not correct, is not true.
Ephesians 4:24 and to put on the new self, created to be like God in true righteousness and holiness.
The same word theos exists in this verse twice, look at how it was translated.
2 Corinthians 4:4 The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.
Here god is the same word theh’- os which was used in John 1:1 translated as GOD. Also note that at the end of this verse it says that JESUS is the image of GOD – it does not say that JESUS is GOD. An image is not the same as the real thing. Now look at this verse…
Again — Philippians 3:19 Whose end is destruction, whose God is their belly, and whose glory is in their shame, who mind earthly things.)
The god in this verse is not referring to GOD ALMIGHTY, yet it is the same Greek word used in John 1:1. But used to signify that some people will forsake the REAL GOD for a substitution that is blasphemous by its very association. Again the same words is used in this verse – is it referring to GOD ALMIGHTY? What about this verse, should we use the formal GOD or the general god?
Acts 7:40 They told Aaron, ‘Make us gods who will go before us. As for this fellow Moses who led us out of Egypt— we don’t know what has happened to him!’
1 Corinthians 8:5 For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth
(as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords” for those who blaspheme against the ONE TRUE GOD (Elah in Aramaic, Allah in Arabic.),.
You have to remember who made the beginning translations – the apostate Catholic Church. The same group that teach people to pray to “Mary, mother of GOD”. They teach blasphemy. They teach people to worship a woman and a man, instead of GOD. They exalt a mere woman to be higher than JESUS and even higher than GOD, Himself. They teach people to pray to saints and worship saints. That is Apostacy by way of Polytheism. All the later translations used all or most of all of the same meanings assigned by the Catholic Church. Can you trust an APOSTATE group to give you the truth?
If JESUS, himself, said “I am return to My GOD and your GOD.”, you have to stop and think - ‘could the translation in John 1:1 be correct? When there is an overwhelming amount of verses (100 or more) that testify that JESUS is the servant, and creation of GOD, how can you use a couple of verses – that could have been translated differently – to negate hundreds of verses?
Look at a few verses that show that JESUS is not GOD. The apostles – who knew JESUS personally write and testify that the Father is the GOD of Jesus. Does GOD have a GOD????
Ephesians 1:17 I keep asking that the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the glorious Father, may give you the Spirit of wisdom and revelation, so that you may know him better.
Romans 15:6 so that with one heart and mouth you may glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.
2 Corinthians 11:31 The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, who is to be praised forever, knows that I am not lying. To the GOD of our Lord Jesus Christ.
The Father is the GOD of JESUS. Does GOD have a GOD? Think clearly.
Understand that the word "Father" as used in the translations, is to be understood in the sympathetic sense. As GOD is the father to all creation.
Finally, to continue the verse, John 1:1 we have:
John 1:2 He was with God in the beginning.
Jesus was with GOD, but JESUS is not GOD. remember also that it says that JESUS was with GOD two times, in verse one and verse 2. why was it placed two times? To reinforce the fact that JESUS is not GOD, but was with GOD. Meaning, sponsoring the same as GOD had taught him to.
I hope that sheds some light on John 1:1 for you Redeemed.
Scimi
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